ATI RN
External Maternal Monitoring Questions
Question 1 of 5
A newly pregnant patient tells the nurse that she has irregular periods and is unsure of when she got pregnant. When is the best time for the nurse to schedule the patient’s ultrasound?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Immediately. Scheduling the ultrasound immediately is crucial for accurate dating of the pregnancy in a patient with irregular periods and uncertain conception date. Early ultrasound dating helps establish an accurate gestational age, which is essential for appropriate prenatal care planning and monitoring fetal development. Option B) In 2 weeks, option C) In 4 weeks, and option D) In 6 weeks are incorrect because delaying the ultrasound could result in inaccurate dating of the pregnancy. This can lead to potential errors in assessing fetal growth, development, and identifying any complications that may arise during pregnancy. From an educational perspective, understanding the importance of early ultrasound in pregnancy dating is fundamental in pharmacology. Pharmacists and healthcare professionals need to grasp the significance of accurate gestational age determination for appropriate medication management during pregnancy. Providing timely and effective care based on reliable pregnancy dating is essential for ensuring the well-being of both the mother and the developing fetus.
Question 2 of 5
A 20-year-old client states that the at-home pregnancy test that she took this morning was positive. Which of the following comments by the nurse is appropriate at this time?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The appropriate comment by the nurse at this time is option C: "How do you feel about the results?" This response is correct because it focuses on the client's emotions and allows her to express her feelings, which is crucial in providing emotional support during this time of significant news. It also opens up a channel for the client to discuss any concerns or questions she may have about the pregnancy test results. Option A is incorrect because assuming the client and her family are happy may not be accurate and could overlook any negative emotions she may be experiencing. Option B is inappropriate as it assumes the involvement of the baby's father without considering the client's individual circumstances or feelings. Option D, while important for gathering medical information, does not address the client's emotional state or provide immediate support. In an educational context, it is essential for nurses to prioritize emotional support and open communication with clients, especially in sensitive situations like pregnancy confirmation. By acknowledging and addressing the client's feelings, nurses can build trust, establish rapport, and ensure holistic care for the client.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following findings in an 8-week gestation client, G2 P1001, should the nurse highlight for the nurse midwife? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should highlight option A, "Body mass index of 17 kg/m²," to the nurse midwife. A low body mass index (BMI) in an 8-week gestation client can indicate malnutrition or underweight status, which can potentially impact the health of the mother and the developing fetus. It is crucial to address nutritional deficiencies early in pregnancy to support optimal maternal and fetal health. Options B, C, and D are not as critical in this context. Option B, "Rubella titer of 1:8," is not a concern at 8 weeks of gestation but should be monitored throughout pregnancy. Option C, "Blood pressure of 100/60 mm Hg," is within the normal range for blood pressure during early pregnancy. Option D, "Hematocrit of 30%," while slightly lower than normal, may not be as urgent as addressing a low BMI in the context of early pregnancy. Educationally, understanding the significance of different parameters in maternal monitoring during pregnancy is vital for nurses and midwives to provide comprehensive care. It is essential to prioritize issues that can have a significant impact on maternal and fetal well-being, such as nutritional status, while also monitoring other parameters for overall assessment and ongoing care planning.
Question 4 of 5
A client is 15 weeks pregnant. She calls the obstetric office to request a medication for a headache. The nurse answers the telephone. Which of the following is the nurse’s best response?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse's best response is option D) You can take acetaminophen because it is a category 'B' medicine. Acetaminophen is considered safe for use during pregnancy when taken at the recommended doses. It is classified as a category B medication, meaning that animal reproduction studies have not demonstrated a risk to the fetus, and there are no adequate and well-controlled studies in pregnant women. Acetaminophen is commonly recommended for pregnant women to relieve pain and reduce fever. Option A is incorrect because it provides a general statement without specific guidance. While it is important to consider the risks of medications during pregnancy, not all medications pose a risk, like acetaminophen. Option B is incorrect because not all over-the-counter medications are safe during pregnancy. Some medications can have adverse effects on the developing fetus, so it is essential to consult a healthcare provider before taking any medication during pregnancy. Option C is incorrect because prescribing a category 'X' medication during pregnancy is not recommended. Category X medications have been shown to have harmful effects on the fetus, and their use is contraindicated during pregnancy. In an educational context, it is crucial for healthcare professionals to be knowledgeable about safe medication use during pregnancy to provide accurate information and support to pregnant individuals. Understanding medication categories and their implications for pregnancy is essential in promoting the well-being of both the mother and the developing fetus. Encouraging open communication and providing evidence-based recommendations can help pregnant individuals make informed decisions regarding their healthcare.
Question 5 of 5
A 38-week gestation client, Bishop score 1, is advised by her nurse midwife to take evening primrose daily. The office nurse advises the client to report which of the following side effects that has been attributed to the oil?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Diarrhea. Evening primrose oil is known to have a side effect of causing diarrhea due to its high content of gamma-linolenic acid. This fatty acid can stimulate the gastrointestinal tract, resulting in loose stools or diarrhea. Option B) Pedal edema is incorrect because evening primrose oil is not typically associated with causing edema or fluid retention in the lower extremities. Option C) Blurred vision is also incorrect as evening primrose oil is not known to have a direct impact on vision or cause blurred vision. Option D) Tinnitus is not a commonly reported side effect of evening primrose oil, so this option is incorrect. From an educational perspective, understanding the side effects of commonly used supplements like evening primrose oil is crucial for healthcare providers, especially those caring for pregnant clients. This knowledge helps in counseling and monitoring patients effectively to ensure their safety and well-being. Encouraging clients to report any adverse effects promptly is essential in managing their care appropriately.