A newly admitted patient diagnosed with major depression has gained 20 pounds over a few months and has suicidal ideation. The patient has taken an antidepressant medication for 1 week without remission of symptoms. Select the priority nursing diagnosis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis in this case is C: Risk for suicide. This is because the patient is exhibiting suicidal ideation, which poses an immediate threat to their safety and well-being. Suicidal ideation requires urgent intervention to ensure the patient's safety. The patient's major depression, weight gain, and lack of symptom remission from the antidepressant medication further emphasize the seriousness of the situation. Choices A, B, and D are not the priority in this scenario as they do not address the immediate risk of harm to the patient. Imbalanced nutrition and chronic low self-esteem are important concerns but do not take precedence over the risk of suicide. Hopelessness, while relevant, is not as urgent as addressing the immediate risk of suicide.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because showing no emotion when discussing a personal tragedy is indicative of blunted affect, a negative symptom commonly seen in residual schizophrenia. This behavior aligns with the diagnostic criteria for residual schizophrenia, which includes the presence of negative symptoms like flat affect. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to negative symptoms of schizophrenia. A communicating style or claims about worms do not specifically indicate negative symptoms, and maintaining arms awkwardly overhead is not a typical symptom of residual schizophrenia.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because consistent inappropriate laughing is a characteristic symptom of disorganized schizophrenia. This observation aligns with the disorganized behavior and affect commonly seen in this subtype of schizophrenia. Option A is not specific to disorganized schizophrenia. Option B does not directly relate to disorganized symptoms. Option D suggests paranoia, which is more indicative of paranoid schizophrenia rather than disorganized schizophrenia.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because haloperidol is a dopamine receptor antagonist. By blocking dopamine receptors, it reduces the activity of dopamine in the brain, which helps in reducing disturbed thought processes. Option A is incorrect as dopamine craving is not related to the mechanism of action of haloperidol. Option B is incorrect as enhancing dopamine receptors would increase dopamine activity, opposite to the intended effect of haloperidol. Option C is incorrect as increasing cellular production of dopamine would also increase dopamine activity, contradicting the purpose of using haloperidol.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: ECT induces a grand mal seizure. This indicates learning has occurred because ECT does indeed induce a controlled grand mal seizure to treat severe depression. Euphoria (A) and catatonia (C) are not accurate states induced by ECT. A petit mal seizure (D) is a mild form of seizure not associated with ECT.