A newly admitted client takes digoxin 0.25 mg/day. The nurse knows that which is the serum therapeutic range for digoxin?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The therapeutic range for serum digoxin levels is typically considered to be between 1.0 to 2.5 ng/mL. This range allows for optimal therapeutic effects while minimizing the risk of toxicity. Levels below 1.0 ng/mL may be subtherapeutic, while levels above 2.5 ng/mL may increase the risk of toxicity, leading to adverse effects such as arrhythmias, nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances. Therefore, maintaining the digoxin level within the range of 1.0 to 2.5 ng/mL is crucial for safe and effective therapy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Lithium is primarily used as a mood stabilizer in the treatment of bipolar disorder. One of the therapeutic effects of lithium is its ability to prevent or decrease the incidence of acute manic episodes in individuals with bipolar disorder. By regulating neurotransmitter levels and affecting intracellular signaling pathways, lithium helps to stabilize mood and prevent the extreme highs of mania. It does not have a direct effect on blood glucose maintenance, control of hyperglycemia, or seizure activity, which are unrelated to its primary mechanism of action in managing mood disorders.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Cough suppressants relieve dry, disruptive coughs , aiding rest. Green secretions need clearance, fever signals illness, and bronchitis may require expectorants. D targets appropriate use, making it the best response.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Interferon alfa is an immunomodulatory agent that works by enhancing the immune system's ability to fight cancer. It has cytotoxic and cytostatic effects, meaning it can kill cancer cells or inhibit their growth. Additionally, it promotes the differentiation of stem cells, which can help restore normal cell function. While interferon alfa does produce cytokines and interleukins, its primary action is immunomodulation and direct effects on cancer cells. It does not primarily cause allergic reactions or produce red blood cells.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: ADHD stimulant (e.g., amphetamine) overdose (formication, dry mouth) lacks a specific antidote, but flumazenil -is listed, likely a typo for a benzo to calm agitation. Ammonium chloride , epinephrine , pilocarpine , and theophylline (E) don't fit. Benzos would address symptoms.