ATI RN
Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A new nurse asks the preceptor to describe the primary purpose of evaluation. Which statement made by the nursing preceptor is most accurate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “Nurses use evaluation to determine the effectiveness of nursing care.” Evaluation in nursing is essential to assess the outcomes of nursing interventions and determine the effectiveness of the care provided. It helps in identifying areas for improvement, making informed decisions, and ensuring quality patient care. Choice A is incorrect because evaluation is not solely about checking completion of tasks but rather assessing the impact of those interventions on patient outcomes. Choice B is incorrect as evaluation is not related to staffing decisions but focuses on assessing the quality of care delivery. Choice D is incorrect as evaluation is not about eliminating paperwork but rather about improving care outcomes.
Question 2 of 9
24 hours after undergoing kidney transplantation, a client develops a hyperacute rejection. To correct this problem, the nurse should prepare the client for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Removal of the transplanted kidney. Hyperacute rejection is a severe and immediate immune response to the transplanted organ. In this case, the transplanted kidney must be removed promptly to prevent further complications, as it is irreversibly damaged. High-dose IV cyclosporine (B) is used for immunosuppression but is not effective in treating hyperacute rejection. Bone marrow transplant (C) is not indicated for kidney rejection. Intra-abdominal instillation of methylprednisolone sodium succinate (D) is used for acute rejection, not hyperacute rejection.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is interviewing a client about his past medical history. Which preexisting condition may lead the nurse to suspect that a client has colorectal cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Polyps. Polyps in the colon are precancerous growths that can develop into colorectal cancer over time. Identifying polyps during a medical history interview can raise suspicion for colorectal cancer due to their potential to progress into malignancy. Duodenal ulcer (A) is not directly related to colorectal cancer. Weight gain (B) is a non-specific symptom and does not specifically indicate colorectal cancer. Hemorrhoids (C) are common and usually benign, not directly linked to colorectal cancer.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with a new diagnosis of lung cancer decides to have radiation therapy. Which of the ff. expectations of this treatment is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased comfort. Radiation therapy for lung cancer aims to alleviate symptoms, reduce pain, and improve quality of life. It is not typically used as a curative treatment like surgery or chemotherapy (A). It does not prevent the need for oxygen (B), as lung cancer can still affect lung function. While radiation therapy may help control the growth of cancer cells, it is not always effective in preventing cancer spread (D). Therefore, the most appropriate expectation of radiation therapy for lung cancer is increased comfort for the patient.
Question 5 of 9
A 52-year old female tells the nurse that she has found a painless lump in her right breast during her monthly self- examination. Which assessment finding would strongly suggest that this client’s lump is cancerous?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Non-mobile mass with irregular edges delineated. This finding strongly suggests cancer as non-mobile masses with irregular edges are characteristic of malignant tumors. Cancerous lumps tend to be fixed in place due to involvement of surrounding tissues. Irregular edges indicate potential invasive growth. Choices A and B describe characteristics more commonly associated with benign masses. Eversion of the nipple is concerning for cancer but not specific enough to strongly suggest malignancy. Choice D indicates absence of lymph node involvement, which is not directly related to the characteristics of the breast lump.
Question 6 of 9
A patient recovering from a leg fracture after a fall reports having dull pain in the affected leg and rates it as a 7 on a 0 to 10 scale. The patient is not able to walk around in the room with crutches because of leg discomfort. Which nursing intervention is priority?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer pain medication. The priority in this situation is to address the patient's pain and provide relief. Administering pain medication will help alleviate the discomfort and enable the patient to mobilize with crutches or a walker. Walking without pain is crucial for the patient's recovery. Explanation for other choices: A: Assisting the patient to walk with crutches may worsen the pain and should not be attempted until the pain is managed. B: Obtaining a walker is not the priority as the immediate concern is addressing the patient's pain. C: Consulting physical therapy may be beneficial in the long term, but immediate pain relief is the priority in this situation.
Question 7 of 9
Wilma was shocked to see that the Tracheostomy was dislodged. Both the inner and outer cannulas was removed and left hanging on James’ neck. What are the 2 equipment’s at james’ bedside that could help Wilma deal with this situation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: New set of tracheostomy tubes and Oxygen tank. Rationale: 1. New set of tracheostomy tubes: Essential for reinserting the cannulas to secure the airway. 2. Oxygen tank: To ensure James has a stable oxygen supply while the tracheostomy tubes are being reinserted. Summary of incorrect choices: B: Theophylline and Epinephrine - These medications are not directly related to managing a dislodged tracheostomy. C: Obturator and Kelly clamp - While these are useful tools for tracheostomy care, they are not the immediate equipment needed in this emergency situation. D: Sterile saline dressing - This is not relevant for a dislodged tracheostomy; the priority is securing the airway.
Question 8 of 9
Cancer is the second major cause of death in this country. What is the first step toward effective cancer control?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because changing habits and customs that predispose the individual to cancer is crucial in preventing cancer. This includes lifestyle changes such as quitting smoking, maintaining a healthy diet, exercising regularly, and avoiding excessive sun exposure. By modifying behaviors that increase cancer risk, individuals can significantly reduce their chances of developing cancer. A: Increasing governmental control of potential carcinogens is not the first step towards effective cancer control as individual behaviors have a more direct impact on cancer risk. C: Conducting more mass screening programs is important but not the first step as prevention through lifestyle changes takes priority. D: Educating the public and professionals about cancer is essential but changing habits is the initial crucial step in effective cancer control.
Question 9 of 9
A client with newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted to the metabolic unit. The primary goal for this admission is education. Which of the following goals should the nurse incorporate into her teaching plan?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, as exercise and a weight reduction diet are essential components in managing type 2 diabetes. Exercise helps lower blood glucose levels and improves insulin sensitivity. Weight reduction reduces insulin resistance. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining blood glucose levels between 180-200mg/dl is too high and can lead to complications. Choice B is incorrect as complete smoking cessation is crucial for overall health and diabetes management. Choice C is incorrect because eye examinations should be done annually, not every 2 years, to monitor for diabetic retinopathy. In summary, choice D is the best option as it directly addresses the management of type 2 diabetes.