Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

A new nurse asks the preceptor to describe the primary purpose of evaluation. Which statement made by the nursing preceptor is most accurate?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: “Nurses use evaluation to determine the effectiveness of nursing care.” Evaluation in nursing is essential to assess the outcomes of nursing interventions and determine the effectiveness of the care provided. It helps in identifying areas for improvement, making informed decisions, and ensuring quality patient care. Choice A is incorrect because evaluation is not solely about checking completion of tasks but rather assessing the impact of those interventions on patient outcomes. Choice B is incorrect as evaluation is not related to staffing decisions but focuses on assessing the quality of care delivery. Choice D is incorrect as evaluation is not about eliminating paperwork but rather about improving care outcomes.

Question 2 of 5

Alex is taking carbamazepine (tegretol) for seizure disorder. He should be monitored for which of the following potential complications?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: leukocytosis. Carbamazepine can cause bone marrow suppression, leading to leukocytosis. Monitoring for elevated white blood cell count is essential to detect this potential complication early. A: Adult respiratory distress syndrome is not a common complication of carbamazepine. B: Elevated levels of phenytoin is not a direct complication of carbamazepine use. C: Diplopia is a common side effect of carbamazepine, not a potential complication like leukocytosis.

Question 3 of 5

The patient develops a low-grade fever 18 hours post-operatively and has diminished breath sounds. Which of the following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take to prevent complications? i.Administer antibiotics iv.Decrease fluid intake ii.Encourage coughing and deepbreathing v.Ambulate patient as ordered iii.Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 2 and 5. Diminished breath sounds indicate possible atelectasis or pneumonia post-operatively, making coughing and deep breathing (2) and ambulation (5) crucial to prevent complications. Decreasing fluid intake (iv) can lead to dehydration, worsening the situation. Administering antibiotics (i) without further assessment may not be necessary at this point. Acetaminophen (iii) can help with fever but does not address the underlying respiratory issue.

Question 4 of 5

An adult has a central venous line. Which of the following should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because monitoring for signs of infection, air embolus, and leakage/puncture are crucial in caring for a patient with a central venous line to prevent serious complications. Infections can lead to sepsis, air embolus can cause respiratory distress, and leakage/puncture can result in hemorrhage or damage to surrounding tissues. A: While a complete blood count and electrolytes may be important for monitoring the patient's overall health, they are not specific to the central venous line care. B: Regular chest x-rays are not necessary unless there are specific indications of line malposition or complications. C: Continuous infusion at a keep-vein-open rate is a standard practice but does not address the critical aspects of central line care mentioned in option D. Therefore, monitoring for signs of infection, air embolus, and leakage/puncture is the most essential component of the plan of care for a patient with a central venous line.

Question 5 of 5

A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) is prescribed zidovudine (azidothymidine, AZT [retrovir]), 200mg PO every 4 hours. When teaching the client about this drug, the nurse should provide which instruction?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Take zidovudine every 4 hours around the clock." Zidovudine is an antiretroviral medication used to treat HIV/AIDS. It is crucial for the client to adhere to the prescribed dosing schedule to maintain therapeutic blood levels. Taking the medication every 4 hours around the clock helps to ensure consistent levels in the body, maximizing its efficacy. Taking it with meals (choice A) or on an empty stomach (choice B) is not specifically indicated for zidovudine. Choice D is incorrect as taking OTC drugs without consulting a healthcare provider can lead to drug interactions or adverse effects. Hence, choice C is the most appropriate instruction to ensure the client benefits from the medication.

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