Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because BCG vaccination is recommended for newborns regardless of maternal smear status to prevent tuberculosis. The neonate is at risk of TB exposure postnatally and needs protection. Maternal smear status does not affect the indication for BCG in the newborn. Choice B is incorrect because withholding BCG in this case would leave the neonate vulnerable to TB. Choices C and D are not applicable as they do not provide any information.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: CT scan without contrast. A CT scan is the most useful imaging study in assessing for findings consistent with a history of abuse in this patient. CT scan is preferred for acute trauma to the head as it provides detailed images of the brain, skull, and facial bones. It can detect acute hemorrhages, fractures, or other signs of trauma. In this case, the patient's presentation with periorbital ecchymosis and facial swelling raises suspicion for traumatic injury, which can be assessed effectively with a CT scan. Radiographs (choice A) are not as sensitive as CT scans in detecting subtle fractures or soft tissue injuries in the head and face. MRI (choice C) is not typically used in acute trauma assessment and may not provide timely information needed in this case. PET scan (choice D) is not indicated for evaluating traumatic head injuries and is more commonly used for assessing metabolic and functional activity in the body.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Oligohydramnios. Shoulder presentation occurs when the baby presents shoulder-first rather than head-first during birth. Oligohydramnios, a condition characterized by low levels of amniotic fluid, can lead to decreased uterine space, increasing the chances of abnormal fetal positioning. Macerated fetus (A) is associated with fetal decomposition, not shoulder presentation. Postdates pregnancy (B) is linked to increased risk of macrosomia but not shoulder presentation. Placenta abruption (D) is a separation of the placenta from the uterus, not a direct cause of shoulder presentation.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Magnesium sulphate. It is the drug of choice in managing eclampsia due to its ability to prevent and control seizures. Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant that reduces neuronal excitability and neuromuscular transmission, thus preventing seizures. It also helps in lowering blood pressure and preventing complications. Phenobarbitone (A) is not the first-line treatment for eclampsia. Calcium gluconate (B) is used for calcium deficiency, not eclampsia. Sodium bicarbonate (D) is used to correct acidosis, not for managing eclampsia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyperbaric oxygen. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is the most effective treatment for pneumatosis as it helps to reduce gas cysts by increasing oxygen levels in the tissues. This promotes healing and resolution of the condition. A: Several days of oxygen by face mask - Regular oxygen therapy is not as effective as hyperbaric oxygen in treating pneumatosis. C: Surgical resection - Surgical resection is not typically the first-line treatment for pneumatosis and is usually reserved for severe cases or complications. D: Treatment of underlying disease - While treating the underlying disease is important, it may not directly address the gas cysts in the gastrointestinal tract. Hyperbaric oxygen therapy targets the gas cysts specifically.