A mother who has brought her newborn infant for assessment tells the nurse that she has noticed that whenever her newborn's head is turned to the right side, the baby straightens out the arm and leg on the same side and flexes the opposite arm and leg. After confirming this on examination, the nurse would tell the mother that this is:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step 1: The described behavior is known as the asymmetric tonic neck reflex (ATNR), a normal infantile reflex. Step 2: The ATNR typically emerges around birth and should disappear between 3 and 4 months of age. Step 3: The reflex helps with hand-eye coordination and development of body awareness. Step 4: Choice A is incorrect as the behavior is not abnormal or related to atonic neck reflex. Step 5: Choice B is incorrect as the reflex typically disappears by 3-4 months, not by the first year of life. Step 6: Choice D is incorrect as it describes a different pattern of movement than what is observed in the ATNR. Summary: The correct answer is C because the behavior described is a normal infantile reflex that typically disappears between 3-4 months of age, aiding in the baby's development.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor blood pressure. When a client presents with acute abdominal pain, monitoring blood pressure is crucial as it can help assess for potential complications like hypovolemic shock or internal bleeding. Changes in blood pressure may indicate worsening condition and prompt the need for immediate intervention. Monitoring vital signs (A) is important but blood pressure takes precedence in this scenario. Assessing abdominal tenderness (B) is valuable but does not directly address potential life-threatening issues. Monitoring for dehydration (D) is also important but not the most immediate concern in the case of acute abdominal pain.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: trichotillomania, which may be caused by her child habitually twirling her hair in an absent-minded way. Trichotillomania is a psychological disorder where individuals have an irresistible urge to pull out their hair. In this case, the broken-off, stublike hair and irregularly shaped patches on the child's head are indicative of hair pulling rather than a medical condition like folliculitis (choice A), traumatic alopecia (choice B), or tinea capitis (choice C). The child's hair being kept very short does not align with the characteristic of these conditions, making trichotillomania the most likely explanation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action when a client develops a fever after surgery is to administer antipyretics (A). Fever post-surgery can indicate infection, and antipyretics help lower the body temperature. Administering pain medications (B) may mask the fever's underlying cause. Providing fluids (C) is essential but not the priority. Providing wound care (D) is important but comes after addressing the fever. Administering antipyretics promptly helps manage the fever and allows for further assessment and intervention if needed.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with advanced Parkinson's disease and gait issues is "A: Impaired Physical Mobility." This diagnosis accurately reflects the client's limited ability to move due to the disease's impact on coordination and muscle control. Impaired Physical Mobility addresses the specific issue of gait problems commonly seen in Parkinson's patients. Choice B, "Impaired Role Performance," does not directly address the physical limitations caused by the disease. Choice C, "Ineffective Role Performance," focuses more on the client's inability to fulfill societal roles rather than the physical aspect of gait issues. Choice D, "Powerlessness," does not capture the primary concern of impaired movement and mobility in this scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it reflects empathy by acknowledging the mother's feelings without judgment or personal bias. The nurse shows understanding and compassion by recognizing the difficulty of the situation. Incorrect answer A lacks empathy as it simply restates the mother's feeling without demonstrating understanding. Answer B also lacks empathy as it focuses on the boyfriend's actions rather than the mother's feelings. Answer D shows some empathy by acknowledging the difficulty but fails to address the mother's emotional state directly. In summary, answer C is correct because it shows empathy by acknowledging the mother's emotions and validating her experience without judgment or redirection.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: ondansetron (Zofran). Ondansetron is a selective serotonin receptor antagonist that effectively targets the serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone to relieve nausea and vomiting. It is commonly used in chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting. A: Metoclopramide is a dopamine receptor antagonist and primarily used for gastrointestinal motility disorders, not specifically for nausea relief. C: Hydroxyzine is an antihistamine with sedative properties, primarily used for anxiety and itching, not specifically for nausea relief. D: Prochlorperazine is a dopamine receptor antagonist primarily used for treating psychotic disorders, not specifically for nausea relief. In summary, ondansetron is the correct choice as it targets serotonin receptors specifically for relieving nausea and vomiting, whereas the other options focus on different mechanisms of action.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct first step in managing a client with acute renal failure is to administer IV fluids (Choice A). This is crucial to ensure adequate hydration and maintain renal perfusion. By administering IV fluids, you can help improve kidney function and prevent further damage. Monitoring urine output (Choice B) is important but comes after addressing the fluid balance with IV fluids. Performing a CT scan (Choice C) is not typically the initial step in managing acute renal failure as it does not directly impact the patient's immediate condition. Administering diuretics (Choice D) can worsen the condition by further reducing kidney function, so it is not the recommended first step.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because floaters are a common and typically benign phenomenon caused by condensed vitreous fibers in the eye. A nurse should educate the patient that floaters are usually not significant and do not require immediate intervention. Option A is incorrect because counting the number of floaters is unnecessary. Option B is incorrect because presuming glaucoma without proper assessment is inappropriate. Option C is incorrect because seeing occasional floaters is a common and normal occurrence in many individuals.