ATI RN
health assessment practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A mother who has brought her newborn infant for assessment tells the nurse that she has noticed that whenever her newborn's head is turned to the right side, the baby straightens out the arm and leg on the same side and flexes the opposite arm and leg. After confirming this on examination, the nurse would tell the mother that this is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: The described behavior is known as the asymmetric tonic neck reflex (ATNR), a normal infantile reflex. Step 2: The ATNR typically emerges around birth and should disappear between 3 and 4 months of age. Step 3: The reflex helps with hand-eye coordination and development of body awareness. Step 4: Choice A is incorrect as the behavior is not abnormal or related to atonic neck reflex. Step 5: Choice B is incorrect as the reflex typically disappears by 3-4 months, not by the first year of life. Step 6: Choice D is incorrect as it describes a different pattern of movement than what is observed in the ATNR. Summary: The correct answer is C because the behavior described is a normal infantile reflex that typically disappears between 3-4 months of age, aiding in the baby's development.
Question 2 of 9
A physician tells the nurse that a patient's vertebra prominens is tender and asks the nurse to reevaluate the area in 1 hour. The area of the body the nurse will assess will be:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: at the level of the C7 vertebra. The vertebra prominens refers to the spinous process of the C7 vertebra, which is the most prominent bony landmark at the base of the neck. Assessing this area allows the nurse to accurately locate and evaluate tenderness reported by the physician. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the location of the vertebra prominens. Option A is too high, above the diaphragm; option B is too low, lateral to the knee cap; and option D is too low, at the level of the T11 vertebra.
Question 3 of 9
A patient says that she has recently noticed a lump in the front of her neck below her"Adam's apple" that seems to be getting bigger. During the assessment, the finding that reassures the nurse that this may not be a cancerous thyroid nodule is that the lump (nodule):
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: the lump is mobile and not hard. A cancerous thyroid nodule is typically fixed and hard, whereas a noncancerous nodule is more likely to be mobile and soft. This characteristic suggests it may be a benign condition such as a thyroid cyst rather than a malignant tumor. The other choices are incorrect because A: tenderness does not necessarily indicate benignity or malignancy, C: disappearance when smiling is more related to a salivary gland issue, and D: hardness and fixation are more indicative of a potentially cancerous nodule.
Question 4 of 9
During the assessment of an infant, the nurse notes that the fontanelles are depressed and sunken. Which condition does the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dehydration. Depressed and sunken fontanelles in an infant indicate dehydration due to decreased fluid volume. Dehydration causes a decrease in tissue turgor, leading to the fontanelles appearing sunken. Rickets (A) is a condition characterized by weak or soft bones due to vitamin D deficiency. Mental retardation (C) is a developmental disorder, not related to fontanelle appearance. Increased intracranial pressure (D) would cause bulging fontanelles, not depressed fontanelles. Therefore, the most likely condition in this case is dehydration.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is obtaining history for a 3-month-old infant. During the interview, the mother states,"I think she is getting her first tooth because she has started drooling a lot." The nurse's best response would be:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because drooling is a common sign of teething in infants. The nurse's response should validate the mother's observation to build trust and rapport. Choice B is incorrect because teething can start as early as 3 months. Choice C is incorrect as drooling is a normal developmental milestone in infants. Choice D is incorrect as infants do not consciously control saliva production.
Question 6 of 9
During examination of a 4-year-old Aboriginal child, the nurse notices that her uvula is partially split. Which of the following statements about this condition is accurate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: This is a bifid uvula, which is a common occurrence in some Aboriginal groups. 1. A bifid uvula is a condition where the uvula is split or divided, which is a common variation seen in some Aboriginal populations. 2. Cleft palate is a different condition involving a gap in the roof of the mouth, not specifically related to Aboriginal people. 3. Uvular injury is not a common cause of a split uvula in children, so reporting to authorities is unnecessary. 4. Torus palatinus is a bony growth on the roof of the mouth and not related to a split uvula or specific to Aboriginal populations.
Question 7 of 9
When examining a patient's eyes, the nurse knows that stimulation of the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because stimulation of the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system results in the elevation of the eyelid (ptosis) and dilation of the pupil (mydriasis). This is due to the action of the dilator pupillae muscle and the superior tarsal muscle. Pupillary constriction (choice A) is controlled by the parasympathetic branch via the sphincter pupillae muscle. Adjusting the eye for near vision (choice B) is controlled by the ciliary muscle, which is under parasympathetic control, not sympathetic. Contraction of the ciliary body (choice D) is also controlled by the parasympathetic system for accommodation of near vision, not the sympathetic system.
Question 8 of 9
A 52-year-old patient complains of seeing occasional"floaters or spots" in front of his eyes. The nurse should:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because floaters are a common and typically benign phenomenon caused by condensed vitreous fibers in the eye. A nurse should educate the patient that floaters are usually not significant and do not require immediate intervention. Option A is incorrect because counting the number of floaters is unnecessary. Option B is incorrect because presuming glaucoma without proper assessment is inappropriate. Option C is incorrect because seeing occasional floaters is a common and normal occurrence in many individuals.
Question 9 of 9
A colleague is assessing an 80-year-old patient who has ear pain and asks him to hold his nose and swallow. Which of the following about this technique is true?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because asking the patient to hold his nose and swallow causes the eustachian tube to open, equalizing pressure in the middle ear. This action will cause the eardrum to bulge slightly outward, making landmarks more visible. Choice A is incorrect as age alone does not preclude the use of this technique. Choice B is incorrect because this technique is not primarily used for assessing otitis media. Choice C is incorrect as it is not specific to upper respiratory infections.