ATI RN
nclex physical and health assessment questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A mother is concerned that her 18-month-old already has 12 teeth. She is wondering if this is normal for a child of this age. The nurse's best response would be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. At 18 months, it is expected for a child to have erupted around 16 deciduous teeth. The rationale for this answer is based on dental development milestones. By age 3, most children should have their full set of 20 primary teeth. Therefore, the nurse should inform the mother that it is normal for an 18-month-old to have around 16 teeth. Choice A is incorrect as comparing the mother's teeth at that age is irrelevant to the child's dental development. Choice B is incorrect because all 20 deciduous teeth should be present by age 3, not 4. Choice C is incorrect as having 12 teeth at 18 months is below the expected number of erupted teeth for that age.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse notices that the patient has bluish white, red-based spots in her mouth that are elevated about 1 to 3 mm. What other signs would the nurse expect to find in this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the description of a red-purple, maculopapular, blotchy rash behind the ears and on the face is characteristic of a condition called Koplik spots, which are associated with measles. Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that presents with symptoms such as cough, runny nose, high fever, and a widespread rash. The presence of Koplik spots in the mouth is a classic early sign of measles. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the specific description of the patient's mouth spots or other expected signs of measles. It's essential for the nurse to recognize the unique features of Koplik spots to promptly identify and manage measles infection.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is performing an assessment on a 7-year-old child who has the following symptoms: chronic watery eyes, sneezing, and clear nasal drainage. The nurse notes the presence of a transverse line across the bridge of the nose, dark blue shadows under the eyes, and a double crease on the lower eyelids. These findings are characteristic of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: allergies. The symptoms described such as chronic watery eyes, sneezing, and clear nasal drainage are classic signs of allergies. The presence of a transverse line across the bridge of the nose, dark blue shadows under the eyes, and a double crease on the lower eyelids are typical physical exam findings in children with allergic rhinitis. These signs are known as Dennie-Morgan lines, allergic shiners, and allergic crease respectively. Allergies are the most likely cause based on the symptoms and physical exam findings. Sinus infection (choice B) typically presents with purulent nasal discharge and facial pain. Nasal congestion (choice C) usually involves nasal stuffiness and may not present with the specific eye findings mentioned. An upper respiratory infection (choice D) may present with fever, cough, and nasal discharge, but the eye findings described are not characteristic of an upper respiratory infection.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is performing an eye assessment on an 80-year-old patient. Which of the following findings is considered abnormal?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because unequal pupillary constriction in response to light is abnormal and may indicate nerve damage or neurological issues. A: Decrease in tear production is common with age. C: Arcus senilis is a normal age-related change. D: Loss of hair at the outer line of the eyebrows is also a common age-related change.
Question 5 of 9
While obtaining history for a 1-year-old from the mother, the nurse notices that the baby has had a bottle in his mouth the entire time. The mother states that"it makes a great pacifier." The best response by the nurse would be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Prolonged use of a bottle can increase the risk for tooth decay and ear infections." This response is the best because it addresses the potential consequences of prolonged bottle use, which include tooth decay and ear infections. It educates the mother on the risks associated with using a bottle as a pacifier for an extended period. Rationale: 1. Tooth decay: Prolonged exposure to sugary liquids in the bottle can lead to tooth decay, as the sugar feeds bacteria in the mouth. 2. Ear infections: Bottle-feeding while lying down can increase the risk of ear infections due to fluid entering the Eustachian tube. 3. Education: The response educates the mother on the specific risks associated with prolonged bottle use, promoting informed decision-making. 4. Health promotion: By highlighting the potential negative outcomes, the nurse is advocating for the baby's health and well-being. Incorrect Choices: A: "You're right, bottles make
Question 6 of 9
The nurse has discovered decreased skin turgor in a patient. In which of the following would this be an expected finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: In an individual who is severely dehydrated. Decreased skin turgor is a clinical sign of dehydration, indicating loss of skin elasticity due to fluid loss. Severe dehydration leads to decreased skin turgor as the skin loses its ability to recoil when pinched. In cases of severe obesity (choice A), skin turgor is usually normal or increased due to excess adipose tissue. During childhood growth spurts (choice B), skin turgor is typically unaffected. Connective tissue disorders like scleroderma (choice D) can lead to changes in skin texture and appearance, but not necessarily decreased skin turgor.
Question 7 of 9
The portion of the ear that consists of movable cartilage and skin is called the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: auricle. The auricle is the visible, outer portion of the ear made up of movable cartilage and skin. It serves to collect sound waves and direct them into the ear canal. The other choices are incorrect because the concha (B) is the concave cavity leading to the ear canal, the outer meatus (C) is the ear canal itself, and the mastoid process (D) is a bony protrusion behind the ear that has no role in sound collection.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with excruciating pain on one side of his head, especially around his eye, forehead, and cheek, that occurs once or twice each day and lasts about 30 minutes to 2 hours. The nurse suspects:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: cluster headaches. Cluster headaches are characterized by excruciating pain on one side of the head, often around the eye, forehead, and cheek. They occur once or twice each day and last for a relatively short duration of 30 minutes to 2 hours. This pattern of symptoms aligns with the typical presentation of cluster headaches. Incorrect Choices: A: Hypertension is unlikely to present with such specific unilateral head pain patterns and timing. C: Tension headaches typically present with more diffuse, mild to moderate pain and are not typically associated with eye, forehead, or cheek pain. D: Migraine headaches usually last longer than 2 hours and are commonly associated with other symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, and sensitivity to light and sound.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following is a risk factor for ear infections in young children?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Second-hand cigarette smoke. Exposure to second-hand smoke can irritate and inflame the lining of the Eustachian tube, making young children more susceptible to ear infections. This is supported by research showing a clear link between exposure to cigarette smoke and increased rates of ear infections in children. Family history (A) may contribute to genetic predisposition but is not a direct risk factor. Air conditioning (B) does not directly cause ear infections. Excessive cerumen (C) can lead to blockages but is not a primary risk factor for infections.