ATI RN
nclex physical and health assessment questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A mother is concerned that her 18-month-old already has 12 teeth. She is wondering if this is normal for a child of this age. The nurse's best response would be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. At 18 months, it is expected for a child to have erupted around 16 deciduous teeth. The rationale for this answer is based on dental development milestones. By age 3, most children should have their full set of 20 primary teeth. Therefore, the nurse should inform the mother that it is normal for an 18-month-old to have around 16 teeth. Choice A is incorrect as comparing the mother's teeth at that age is irrelevant to the child's dental development. Choice B is incorrect because all 20 deciduous teeth should be present by age 3, not 4. Choice C is incorrect as having 12 teeth at 18 months is below the expected number of erupted teeth for that age.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is palpating the sinus areas. If they are normal, which of the following would the patient report?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: No sensation. When the sinus areas are normal, the patient should not feel any discomfort or pain upon palpation. This indicates that there is no inflammation or infection present. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because feeling firm pressure, experiencing pain during palpation, or feeling pain behind the eyes would suggest abnormalities in the sinuses, such as congestion, inflammation, or infection. Therefore, the absence of any sensation is the expected response when the sinuses are normal.
Question 3 of 9
A man comes to the emergency department after he had participated in a boxing match, and his left eye is swollen almost shut. He has bruises on his face and neck. He says he is worried because he"can't see well" from his left eye. The physician suspects retinal damage. Signs of retinal detachment include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: shadow or diminished vision in one quadrant or one half of the visual field. Retinal detachment can cause a shadow or reduced vision specifically in one quadrant or one half of the visual field due to the detachment of the sensory retina from the underlying retinal pigment epithelium. This occurs because the detached retina disrupts the normal function of the photoreceptor cells leading to visual disturbances in that specific area. A: Loss of central vision is not a typical sign of retinal detachment, as it usually affects peripheral vision initially. C: Loss of peripheral vision can occur in retinal detachment, but it is not a defining characteristic as the detachment typically affects a specific quadrant or half of the visual field. D: Sudden loss of pupillary constriction and accommodation is not directly related to retinal detachment but may be seen in other eye conditions like acute angle-closure glaucoma.
Question 4 of 9
A patient comes into the clinic complaining of facial pain, fever, and malaise. On examination, the nurse notes swollen turbinates and a purulent discharge from the nose. The patient also complains of a dull, throbbing pain in his cheeks and teeth on the right side and pain when the nurse palpates the areas. The nurse recognizes that this patient has:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: The patient's symptoms of facial pain, fever, malaise, swollen turbinates, purulent nasal discharge, pain in cheeks and teeth, and pain upon palpation all point towards maxillary sinusitis. The maxillary sinuses are located in the cheek area, and infection can lead to the described symptoms. Frontal sinusitis typically presents with forehead pain, and nasal polyps would not cause the specific symptoms mentioned. Posterior epistaxis involves bleeding from the back of the nose and is not consistent with the patient's symptoms. Therefore, the correct answer is C: maxillary sinusitis.
Question 5 of 9
A patient with a middle ear infection asks the nurse,"What does the middle ear do?" The nurse says that the function of the middle ear is to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. The middle ear conducts sound vibrations from the outer ear to the inner ear via the ossicles. 2. This transmission is essential for the inner ear to convert the vibrations into electrical signals for the brain to interpret as sound. 3. Maintaining balance (A) is the function of the inner ear's vestibular system. 4. Interpreting sounds (B) is done by the brain, not the middle ear. 5. Increasing amplitude (D) would distort sound perception, not enable inner ear function.
Question 6 of 9
A mother brings her 2-month-old daughter in for an examination and says,"My daughter rolled over and hit her head on the wall, and now I have noticed that she has this spot that is soft on the top of her head. Is there something terribly wrong?" The nurse's response would be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The "soft spot" on a baby's head, also known as the fontanelle, is a normal anatomical feature that allows for the growth and development of the baby's brain during the first year of life. It is a gap between the bones of the skull that eventually closes as the baby grows. Response A is incorrect because the fontanelle is not related to maternal dietary intake during pregnancy. Response B is incorrect as craniosynostosis is a condition where the sutures of the skull close prematurely, leading to abnormal head shape. Response C is incorrect as cretinism and congenital hypothyroidism are not typically associated with the fontanelle. Overall, the correct response, D, provides an accurate explanation of the normal function of the fontanelle in a newborn's development.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is assessing a 3-year-old who has been brought to the clinic for"drainage from the nose." On assessment, it is found that there is a purulent, malodorous drainage from the left naris but no drainage from the right naris. The child is afebrile and has no other symptoms. What should the nurse do next?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Perform an otoscopic examination of the left naris. The rationale for this is that the child presenting with purulent, malodorous drainage from one naris may indicate a foreign body lodged in the left naris causing infection. By performing an otoscopic examination, the nurse can visualize inside the naris to identify any foreign body or signs of infection. This step is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment plan. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: Referring the child for an antibiotic prescription without further assessment is premature and may not address the underlying cause. B: Having the mother bring the child back in 1 week delays the necessary examination and potential treatment. D: Telling the mother that this is normal without proper assessment could lead to overlooking a potential health issue that requires intervention.
Question 8 of 9
While obtaining history for a 1-year-old from the mother, the nurse notices that the baby has had a bottle in his mouth the entire time. The mother states that"it makes a great pacifier." The best response by the nurse would be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Prolonged use of a bottle can increase the risk for tooth decay and ear infections." This response is the best because it addresses the potential consequences of prolonged bottle use, which include tooth decay and ear infections. It educates the mother on the risks associated with using a bottle as a pacifier for an extended period. Rationale: 1. Tooth decay: Prolonged exposure to sugary liquids in the bottle can lead to tooth decay, as the sugar feeds bacteria in the mouth. 2. Ear infections: Bottle-feeding while lying down can increase the risk of ear infections due to fluid entering the Eustachian tube. 3. Education: The response educates the mother on the specific risks associated with prolonged bottle use, promoting informed decision-making. 4. Health promotion: By highlighting the potential negative outcomes, the nurse is advocating for the baby's health and well-being. Incorrect Choices: A: "You're right, bottles make
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following assessment findings would the nurse be most concerned about?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, an ulceration with rolled edges on the side of the tongue, as it could indicate a possible malignancy such as oral cancer. The presence of rolled edges is concerning for malignancy due to the irregularity in shape and potential for rapid growth. This finding should be promptly investigated to rule out cancer. A: A painful vesicle inside the cheek for 2 days is likely a benign condition such as a canker sore. B: The presence of moist, nontender Stenson's ducts is a normal finding in the mouth. C: Stippled gingival margins that adhere snugly to the teeth could indicate a healthy gum tissue attachment. In summary, the other choices are less concerning as they are either benign or normal variations, while the presence of an ulceration with rolled edges raises significant suspicion for malignancy.