ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A mother brings her newborn in for an assessment and asks,"Is there something wrong with my baby? His head seems so big." Which of the following does the nurse know about the relative proportions of the head and trunk in the newborn?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: At birth, the head is one fifth the total length. This is because newborns have relatively larger heads compared to their body size. This is known as cephalocaudal growth, where development starts from the head and progresses down the body. The head being one-fifth of the total length is a normal proportion in newborns. Choice B is incorrect because at birth, the chest circumference is usually greater than the head circumference. Choice C is incorrect as the head size reaches about 80% of its final size by age 2, not 3 years old. Choice D is incorrect because the closure of the anterior fontanelle at 2 months does not necessarily mean the head will appear proportionate to the body; it continues to grow in proportion to the body size.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is assessing a patient's eyes for the accommodation response and would expect to see:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: convergence of the axes of the eyes. During the accommodation response, the eyes converge to focus on a near object. This is necessary to maintain clear vision when looking at close objects. Dilation of the pupils (A) is not part of the accommodation response. A consensual light reflex (B) refers to both pupils constricting simultaneously in response to light, not specific to accommodation. Conjugate movement of the eyes (C) refers to both eyes moving together in the same direction, which is not the primary action during accommodation.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is teaching a health class to high school boys. One of the topics is the use of smokeless tobacco (SLT). Which of the following statements about SLT are accurate? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because one pinch of smokeless tobacco (SLT) in the mouth for 30 minutes can indeed deliver a similar amount of nicotine as smoking one cigarette. This is because the nicotine in SLT is absorbed through the oral mucosa directly into the bloodstream, providing a quick effect. This statement is accurate and reflects the pharmacokinetics of SLT use. Option B is incorrect because smoking carries a higher risk of oral cancer compared to SLT use. Option C is incorrect as pain is not always an early sign of oral cancer, and other symptoms such as non-healing sores or lumps may indicate oral cancer. Option D is incorrect as pain can sometimes be an early sign of oral cancer, especially in advanced stages.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following would the nurse expect to find when examining the eyes of a patient of African descent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A dark retinal background. This is because individuals of African descent typically have a higher concentration of melanin in their eyes, resulting in a darker retinal background. This can affect the appearance of the fundus during eye examinations. Incorrect choices: A: Increased night vision - Night vision is not directly influenced by melanin levels in the eyes and is more related to the function of rods and cones in the retina. C: Increased photosensitivity - Melanin provides some protection against UV light, so individuals with darker retinas may have lower photosensitivity. D: Narrowed palpebral fissures - Palpebral fissures refer to the opening between the eyelids and are not typically influenced by melanin levels in the eyes.
Question 5 of 9
To assess colour vision in a male child, the nurse would:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because testing for color vision once between the ages of 4 and 8 is appropriate to assess any potential color vision deficiencies. This age range is crucial as color vision development is mostly completed by the age of 8. Annual checks (A) are not necessary unless there are specific concerns. Asking the child to identify clothing color (B) may not be a reliable indicator of color vision deficiency. No information is provided for option D.
Question 6 of 9
A few days after a summer hiking trip, a 25-year-old man comes to the clinic with a rash. On examination, the nurse notes that the rash is red and circular with central clearing, and is located across his midriff and behind his knees. The nurse suspects:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lyme disease. The presentation of a red circular rash with central clearing, known as erythema migrans, following a hiking trip in the summer is highly indicative of Lyme disease. The specific distribution of the rash across the midriff and behind the knees aligns with typical areas where the rash appears in Lyme disease cases. This rash is a hallmark sign of early Lyme disease caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi transmitted through the bite of an infected tick. Other answer choices are incorrect because rubeola presents with a different rash pattern, an allergy to mosquito bites would not typically present in this manner, and Rocky Mountain spotted fever typically presents with a different rash appearance and distribution.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse has just completed a lymph assessment on a 60-year-old healthy female patient. The nurse knows that most lymph nodes in healthy adults are normally:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: not palpable. In healthy adults, most lymph nodes are not palpable as they are typically small and not easily detectable through touch. This indicates normal lymphatic function and absence of significant inflammation or infection. Choices A, C, and D describe characteristics of abnormal lymph nodes, such as being shotty, large/firm/fixed, or rubbery/discrete/mobile, respectively, which are indicative of pathological conditions like infection, malignancy, or inflammation. Therefore, the absence of palpable lymph nodes in a healthy individual is the expected norm.
Question 8 of 9
A physician has diagnosed a patient with purpura. After leaving the room, a nursing student asks the nurse what the physician saw that led to that diagnosis. The nurse should say:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because purpura is characterized by the presence of confluent and extensive patches of petechiae and ecchymoses. Petechiae are small, pinpoint hemorrhages less than 2mm in size, and ecchymoses are larger bruises. This presentation is indicative of a more severe underlying condition, such as a bleeding disorder or vasculitis. Choice A is incorrect as it describes spider veins or telangiectasias, not purpura. Choice B describes a birthmark, not purpura. Choice D is incorrect as it describes petechiae, not purpura, which involves larger areas of bleeding.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is unable to suction the nares of a newborn immediately following delivery. The attempt to pass a catheter through both nasal cavities has met with no success. What would be the nurse's best action in this situation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): 1. Immediate intervention is crucial as the newborn needs clear airways for breathing. 2. Inability to suction the nares can lead to respiratory distress and compromise the infant's oxygenation. 3. Waiting or attempting again may delay necessary actions, risking the baby's health. 4. Physician's assistance may be needed, but recognizing the urgency is the nurse's responsibility to ensure timely care. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A. Attempting to suction again with a bulb syringe may not resolve the issue and delay necessary intervention. B. Waiting for the infant to stop crying is not ideal as it may prolong the risk of respiratory distress. D. While physician assistance may be necessary, immediate recognition of the critical situation is the nurse's primary responsibility.