ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A mother brings her newborn in for an assessment and asks,"Is there something wrong with my baby? His head seems so big." Which of the following does the nurse know about the relative proportions of the head and trunk in the newborn?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: At birth, the head is one fifth the total length. This is because newborns have relatively larger heads compared to their body size. This is known as cephalocaudal growth, where development starts from the head and progresses down the body. The head being one-fifth of the total length is a normal proportion in newborns. Choice B is incorrect because at birth, the chest circumference is usually greater than the head circumference. Choice C is incorrect as the head size reaches about 80% of its final size by age 2, not 3 years old. Choice D is incorrect because the closure of the anterior fontanelle at 2 months does not necessarily mean the head will appear proportionate to the body; it continues to grow in proportion to the body size.
Question 2 of 9
During an examination of a 3-year-old child, the nurse notes a bruit over the left temporal area. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a bruit in a 3-year-old child, especially over the temporal area, is not a normal finding and could indicate a serious underlying issue such as an arteriovenous malformation or other vascular abnormality. Stopping the examination and notifying the physician is crucial for further evaluation and management. A: Continuing the examination is not appropriate as the bruit should prompt further investigation. B: Checking again in 1 hour is unnecessary delay in addressing a potentially serious issue. C: Notifying the parents alone without medical intervention may delay necessary evaluation and treatment.
Question 3 of 9
A patient is unable to read the 20/100 line on the Snellen chart. The nurse would:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Referring the patient to an ophthalmologist or optometrist is the appropriate action because the patient's inability to read the 20/100 line on the Snellen chart suggests significant visual impairment that requires professional evaluation. Options B and C are incorrect as they do not address the underlying cause of the vision issue. Option B focuses on a different method of assessment and does not provide a solution for the patient's visual acuity problem. Option C assumes the patient's vision issue can be corrected by reading glasses, which may not be the case for a 20/100 visual acuity. Option D is also incorrect as it only adjusts the testing distance and does not address the need for a comprehensive evaluation by an eye care specialist.
Question 4 of 9
A 68-year-old woman is in the eye clinic for a checkup. She tells the nurse that she has been having trouble reading the paper, sewing, and even seeing the faces of her grandchildren. On examination, the nurse notes that she has some loss of central vision but her peripheral vision is normal. These findings suggest that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: she may have macular degeneration. Macular degeneration is characterized by loss of central vision while peripheral vision remains intact. In this case, the woman's difficulty with tasks that require central vision, such as reading and recognizing faces, points towards macular degeneration. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Her symptoms indicate a specific vision problem, not just age-related changes. C: Cataracts typically cause blurred vision, not loss of central vision. D: Glaucoma typically affects peripheral vision first before progressing to central vision loss.
Question 5 of 9
A 40-year-old woman reports a change in mole size, accompanied by colour changes, itching, burning, and bleeding over the past month. She has a dark complexion and has no family history of skin cancer, but she has had many blistering sunburns in the past. The nurse would:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient's symptoms (change in mole size, color changes, itching, burning, bleeding) are concerning for melanoma, a type of skin cancer. Given her history of blistering sunburns, early evaluation and referral are crucial for timely intervention. Option A is incorrect as it delays necessary evaluation. Option C is irrelevant as the symptoms suggest a serious condition, not environmental irritants. Option D is incorrect as compound nevi typically do not present with the described symptoms and are not common in this age group.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is assessing a patient with a history of intravenous drug abuse. While assessing his mouth, the nurse notices a dark red confluent macule on the hard palate. This could be an early sign of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). The dark red confluent macule on the hard palate is known as Kaposi's sarcoma, a common manifestation of AIDS. This lesion is caused by Human Herpesvirus 8 and is often seen in patients with compromised immune systems. Measles (B) typically presents with a rash, not a dark red macule. Leukemia (C) does not typically manifest as a dark red macule in the mouth. Carcinoma (D) refers to cancer and would present differently than Kaposi's sarcoma. In summary, the presence of a dark red confluent macule on the hard palate in a patient with a history of intravenous drug abuse is highly suggestive of AIDS, specifically Kaposi's sarcoma.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following signs would the nurse expect to find on assessment of an individual with otitis externa?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Enlarged regional lymph nodes. In otitis externa, there may be regional lymphadenopathy due to inflammation and infection. Rhinorrhea (A) is associated with upper respiratory infections, not otitis externa. Periorbital edema (B) is seen in conditions like periorbital cellulitis. Pain over the maxillary sinuses (C) is indicative of sinusitis, not otitis externa.
Question 8 of 9
A patient is unable to differentiate between sharp and dull stimulation to both sides of her face. The nurse suspects:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: damage to the trigeminal nerve. Trigeminal nerve damage can result in the inability to differentiate between sharp and dull sensations on the face. The trigeminal nerve is responsible for transmitting sensory information from the face to the brain. Bell's palsy (choice A) affects facial muscles, not sensory perception. Frostbite (choice C) typically causes numbness rather than loss of sensation discrimination. Scleroderma (choice D) is a connective tissue disorder that does not directly affect sensory perception on the face.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following statements about the outer layer of the eye is true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the trigeminal (CN V) and the trochlear (CN IV) nerves are indeed stimulated when the outer surface of the eye is stimulated. The trigeminal nerve is responsible for the sensation of touch in the face and controls the muscles involved in chewing. The trochlear nerve controls the superior oblique muscle of the eye, which helps with downward and inward eye movements. Therefore, when the outer layer of the eye is touched or stimulated, these nerves are activated to convey the sensation to the brain. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: The outer layer of the eye is not particularly sensitive to touch compared to other areas like the cornea or conjunctiva. B: The outer layer of the eye is not darkly pigmented; the pigmented layer is actually the uvea inside the eye. D: The visual receptive layer of the eye, known as the retina, is located deeper within the eye, not