ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A mother brings her newborn in for an assessment and asks,"Is there something wrong with my baby? His head seems so big." Which of the following does the nurse know about the relative proportions of the head and trunk in the newborn?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: At birth, the head is one fifth the total length. This is because newborns have relatively larger heads compared to their body size. This is known as cephalocaudal growth, where development starts from the head and progresses down the body. The head being one-fifth of the total length is a normal proportion in newborns. Choice B is incorrect because at birth, the chest circumference is usually greater than the head circumference. Choice C is incorrect as the head size reaches about 80% of its final size by age 2, not 3 years old. Choice D is incorrect because the closure of the anterior fontanelle at 2 months does not necessarily mean the head will appear proportionate to the body; it continues to grow in proportion to the body size.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following would the nurse expect to find when examining the eyes of a patient of African descent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: A dark retinal background. This is because individuals of African descent typically have a higher concentration of melanin in their eyes, resulting in a darker retinal background. This can affect the appearance of the fundus during eye examinations. Incorrect choices: A: Increased night vision - Night vision is not directly influenced by melanin levels in the eyes and is more related to the function of rods and cones in the retina. C: Increased photosensitivity - Melanin provides some protection against UV light, so individuals with darker retinas may have lower photosensitivity. D: Narrowed palpebral fissures - Palpebral fissures refer to the opening between the eyelids and are not typically influenced by melanin levels in the eyes.
Question 3 of 9
When examining children with Down's syndrome (trisomy 21), the nurse looks for the possible presence of:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Down's syndrome is associated with characteristic physical features. Step 2: One common physical feature is a protruding tongue due to a small oral cavity. Step 3: This is known as macroglossia and is seen in individuals with Down's syndrome. Step 4: Therefore, the nurse looks for a protruding thin tongue in children with Down's syndrome. Summary: A is incorrect because ear dysplasia is not a common feature. B is incorrect as a long, thin neck is not a typical characteristic. D is incorrect because a narrow and raised nasal bridge is not a key feature of Down's syndrome.
Question 4 of 9
The physician has diagnosed a tracheal shift in a patient. The nurse is aware that this means that the patient's trachea is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because tracheal shift due to thyroid enlargement occurs when the thyroid gland enlarges and displaces the trachea to the opposite side. This is a common clinical finding in conditions like a goiter. Other choices are incorrect because: A is incorrect as tracheal shift is not related to systole; B is incorrect as tracheal shift is typically caused by a mass pushing the trachea; C is incorrect as pleural adhesions don't typically cause tracheal shift.
Question 5 of 9
While performing the otoscopic examination of a 3-year-old boy who has been pulling on his left ear, the nurse finds that his left tympanic membrane is bright red and the light reflex is not visible. The most likely cause is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: acute otitis media. In this case, the presentation of a bright red tympanic membrane and absence of the light reflex are indicative of inflammation and fluid accumulation in the middle ear, which are classic signs of acute otitis media. This condition commonly occurs in young children, especially after a recent upper respiratory infection. Incorrect choices: A: Fungal infection is less likely in this case as the symptoms are more consistent with acute bacterial infection seen in otitis media. C: Rupture of the drum would typically present with sudden relief of pain and discharge from the ear, which is not described in the scenario. D: Blood behind the drum (hemotympanum) is uncommon in children with acute otitis media and would usually be associated with trauma or barotrauma.
Question 6 of 9
When a light is directed across the iris of the eye from the temporal side, the examiner is assessing for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: the presence of shadows, which may indicate glaucoma. When a light is directed across the iris from the temporal side, it helps in evaluating the presence of shadows in the anterior chamber angle, which can suggest a narrow or closed angle glaucoma. This technique is known as transillumination test and is important in detecting potential glaucoma cases. A: Drainage from dacryocystitis is incorrect as it is typically assessed by pressing on the lacrimal sac area to observe for discharge. B: Conjunctivitis over the iris is incorrect as conjunctivitis is an inflammation of the conjunctiva, not the iris. D: A scattered light reflex indicative of cataracts is incorrect as cataracts cause clouding of the lens, not scattering of light across the iris.
Question 7 of 9
A 19-year-old community college student is brought to the emergency department with a severe headache he describes as"like nothing I've ever had before." His temperature is 40°C, and his neck is stiff. What do these signs and symptoms suggest?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The signs and symptoms - severe headache, high fever, and neck stiffness - in a young adult point towards meningeal inflammation. The combination of these symptoms is indicative of a potential infection or inflammation of the meninges, the protective membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. The presence of fever and neck stiffness, in addition to the severe headache, raises concern for meningitis, an infection of the meninges. This is a medical emergency that requires prompt evaluation and treatment. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Head injury usually presents with a history of trauma, which is not mentioned in the scenario. B: Cluster headaches typically do not present with fever and neck stiffness. C: Migraine headaches do not typically cause such high fever and neck stiffness.
Question 8 of 9
A 17-year-old student is a swimmer on her high school's swim team. She has had three bouts of otitis externa so far this season and wants to know how to prevent it. The nurse instructs her to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Rubbing alcohol or 2% acetic acid eardrops help to maintain the pH balance in the ear canal, making it less conducive to bacterial growth. 2. These eardrops also help to dry out excess moisture, reducing the risk of otitis externa. 3. By using these eardrops after every swim, the student can prevent the recurrence of otitis externa. Summary of other choices: A: Using a cotton-tipped swab can push wax deeper into the ear canal, increasing the risk of infection. C: Irrigating the ears can introduce water into the ear canal, potentially worsening the condition. D: Mineral oil and hydrogen peroxide can be harsh on the delicate skin of the ear canal, causing irritation.
Question 9 of 9
A patient is unable to read the 20/100 line on the Snellen chart. The nurse would:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Referring the patient to an ophthalmologist or optometrist is the appropriate action because the patient's inability to read the 20/100 line on the Snellen chart suggests significant visual impairment that requires professional evaluation. Options B and C are incorrect as they do not address the underlying cause of the vision issue. Option B focuses on a different method of assessment and does not provide a solution for the patient's visual acuity problem. Option C assumes the patient's vision issue can be corrected by reading glasses, which may not be the case for a 20/100 visual acuity. Option D is also incorrect as it only adjusts the testing distance and does not address the need for a comprehensive evaluation by an eye care specialist.