A mother brings her children into the clinic and they are diagnosed with chickenpox. The mother had chickenpox as a child and is not concerned with contracting the disease when caring for her children. what type of immunity does this mother have?

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Question 1 of 9

A mother brings her children into the clinic and they are diagnosed with chickenpox. The mother had chickenpox as a child and is not concerned with contracting the disease when caring for her children. what type of immunity does this mother have?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Active natural immunity. The mother had chickenpox as a child, which triggered her immune system to produce antibodies, providing long-lasting protection. This is an example of active immunity because her immune system actively responded to the pathogen. Summary: B: Passive artificial immunity - This involves receiving pre-made antibodies, not produced by the individual's immune system. C: Passive natural immunity - This is acquired through placental transfer or breastfeeding, not through prior exposure to the pathogen. D: Active artificial immunity - This is acquired through vaccination, not through natural exposure to the pathogen.

Question 2 of 9

A nurse determines that the patient’s condition has improved and has met expected outcomes. Which step of the nursing process is the nurse exhibiting?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Evaluation. In the nursing process, evaluation involves determining if the patient's condition has improved and if the expected outcomes have been met. The nurse assesses the patient's progress, compares it to the expected outcomes set during planning, and determines the effectiveness of the interventions implemented. This step ensures that the care provided is meeting the patient's needs and helps in making any necessary adjustments to the care plan. Incorrect choices: A: Assessment - This step involves gathering information about the patient's condition and needs at the beginning of the nursing process. B: Planning - Involves setting goals and developing a plan of care based on the assessment data. C: Implementation - Involves carrying out the interventions outlined in the care plan to meet the patient's goals.

Question 3 of 9

The nurse encourages a client with an immunologic disorder to eat a nutritionally balanced diet to promote optimal immunologic function. Autoimmunity has been linked to excessive ingestion of:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fat. Excessive ingestion of fat has been linked to autoimmunity due to its potential to trigger inflammation in the body, which can disrupt the immune system's balance and lead to autoimmune responses. High-fat diets have been associated with increased production of pro-inflammatory molecules, impacting immune function negatively. Protein (choice A) is essential for immune function, vitamin A (choice B) supports immune responses, and zinc (choice D) is crucial for immune system regulation. However, excessive intake of these nutrients typically does not directly lead to autoimmunity like excessive fat consumption does.

Question 4 of 9

A client with thrombocytopenia secondary to leukemia develops epistaxis. The nurse should instruct the client to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sit upright, leaning slightly forward. This position helps to minimize blood flow to the head, reducing the risk of increased bleeding. It also prevents blood from flowing down the throat, reducing the risk of aspiration. A: Lying supine with the neck extended can increase pressure on the blood vessels in the head, potentially worsening the epistaxis. C: Blowing the nose and putting lateral pressure can disrupt any clots that may have formed and increase bleeding. D: Holding the nose while bending forward at the waist can lead to blood flowing down the throat and increase the risk of aspiration.

Question 5 of 9

Mrs. Santos, a 75-year old patient with type II diabetes is in emergency department with signs of hyperglycemic, hyperosmolar nonketotic (HHNK) coma. What assessment finding should the nurse expect?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: severe dehydration. In HHNK coma, the body tries to eliminate excess glucose through frequent urination, leading to dehydration. This results in decreased blood volume, causing hypotension and tachycardia. Signs include dry mucous membranes, poor skin turgor, and concentrated urine output. Fruity odor of the breath (A) is associated with diabetic ketoacidosis, not HHNK coma. Shallow, deep respirations (B) and profuse sweating (D) are not typically associated with HHNK coma.

Question 6 of 9

The nurse would monitor the client for which of the following?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trousseau's sign. This involves carpal spasm induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure, indicating hypocalcemia. The nurse should monitor for this sign in clients at risk for low calcium levels. Hypoglycemia and hypokalemia have specific signs and symptoms not related to Trousseau's sign. Respiratory changes are nonspecific and may not be directly related to monitoring for low calcium levels.

Question 7 of 9

A patient expresses fear of going home and being alone. Vital signs are stable and the incision is nearly completely healed. What can the nurse infer from the subjective data?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient expressing fear of going home and being alone indicates apprehension about discharge. This inference is based on the patient's subjective feelings and concerns, which are important to address for a safe discharge. Choices A and B are incorrect as they assume the patient's readiness for independent tasks without considering their emotional state. Choice D is incorrect as there is no objective data provided to support the assumption that the surgery was not successful. It is important for the nurse to acknowledge and address the patient's emotional needs before discharge.

Question 8 of 9

A client with a cerebellar brain tumor is admitted to an acute care facility. The nurse formulates a nursing diagnosis of Risk for injury. Which “related-to” phrase should the nurse add to complete the nursing diagnosis statement?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Related to impaired balance. The rationale for this is that a cerebellar brain tumor can affect the client's coordination and balance due to its location in the brain responsible for fine motor movements. Impaired balance increases the risk for falls and injuries. Visual field deficits (choice A) may contribute to the risk of injury but not as directly as impaired balance. Difficulty swallowing (choice C) and psychomotor seizures (choice D) are not directly related to the client's risk for injury due to a cerebellar brain tumor.

Question 9 of 9

The neurologist tests the 4th and 6th cranial nerves together by having a patient do which of the following?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because testing the 4th (trochlear) and 6th (abducens) cranial nerves involves assessing eye movements. The trochlear nerve controls downward and inward eye movement, while the abducens nerve controls lateral eye movement. Asking the patient to follow the finger with their eyes tests the function of both nerves simultaneously. Choices A, B, and C do not specifically target the 4th and 6th cranial nerves, making them incorrect options.

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