ATI RN
nclex physical and health assessment questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A mother brings her 2-month-old daughter in for an examination and says,"My daughter rolled over and hit her head on the wall, and now I have noticed that she has this spot that is soft on the top of her head. Is there something terribly wrong?" The nurse's response would be:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The "soft spot" on a baby's head, also known as the fontanelle, is a normal anatomical feature that allows for the growth and development of the baby's brain during the first year of life. It is a gap between the bones of the skull that eventually closes as the baby grows. Response A is incorrect because the fontanelle is not related to maternal dietary intake during pregnancy. Response B is incorrect as craniosynostosis is a condition where the sutures of the skull close prematurely, leading to abnormal head shape. Response C is incorrect as cretinism and congenital hypothyroidism are not typically associated with the fontanelle. Overall, the correct response, D, provides an accurate explanation of the normal function of the fontanelle in a newborn's development.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse has discovered decreased skin turgor in a patient. In which of the following would this be an expected finding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: In an individual who is severely dehydrated. Decreased skin turgor is a clinical sign of dehydration, indicating loss of skin elasticity due to fluid loss. Severe dehydration leads to decreased skin turgor as the skin loses its ability to recoil when pinched. In cases of severe obesity (choice A), skin turgor is usually normal or increased due to excess adipose tissue. During childhood growth spurts (choice B), skin turgor is typically unaffected. Connective tissue disorders like scleroderma (choice D) can lead to changes in skin texture and appearance, but not necessarily decreased skin turgor.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse notices that the patient has bluish white, red-based spots in her mouth that are elevated about 1 to 3 mm. What other signs would the nurse expect to find in this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the description of a red-purple, maculopapular, blotchy rash behind the ears and on the face is characteristic of a condition called Koplik spots, which are associated with measles. Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that presents with symptoms such as cough, runny nose, high fever, and a widespread rash. The presence of Koplik spots in the mouth is a classic early sign of measles. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the specific description of the patient's mouth spots or other expected signs of measles. It's essential for the nurse to recognize the unique features of Koplik spots to promptly identify and manage measles infection.
Question 4 of 9
What would be a normal finding when assessing the lacrimal apparatus during an eye examination?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: The presence of tears along the inner canthus. This is a normal finding during an eye examination as tears are produced by the lacrimal gland and drain into the nasolacrimal duct, which exits at the inner canthus. This indicates proper tear production and drainage. Incorrect choices: B: A blocked nasolacrimal duct in a newborn infant - This would present as excessive tearing and discharge. C: A slight swelling over the upper lid and along the bony orbit if the patient has a cold - This could indicate inflammation due to infection. D: The absence of drainage from the puncta when the inner orbital rim is pressed - This would suggest an issue with the lacrimal drainage system.
Question 5 of 9
A 65-year-old male has reported a crusty nodule behind the pinna. Over the past 6 months, the nodule has been bleeding intermittently and has not healed. On physical assessment, the nurse finds an ulcerated crusted nodule with an indurated base. The preliminary analysis in this situation would be that this:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the characteristics described (bleeding, not healing, ulcerated, indurated base) are indicative of a potential carcinoma, such as squamous cell carcinoma. These features raise concerns about malignancy and warrant immediate referral for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a benign sebaceous cyst (A) typically presents as a smooth, non-ulcerated mass, Darwin's tubercle (B) is a normal anatomical variation behind the ear and not associated with bleeding or ulceration, and a tophus (D) is a deposit of uric acid crystals seen in gout and would not present in this manner.
Question 6 of 9
While performing a voice test to assess hearing in a patient, which of the following would the nurse do?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Whispering two-syllable words ensures a low volume, requiring the patient to focus on clarity. 2. Asking the patient to repeat tests their ability to hear and understand the whispered words accurately. 3. Whispering helps eliminate the influence of lip-reading, ensuring accurate assessment. Summary: A: Shielding the lips while speaking would hinder the patient's ability to hear clearly. C: Placing a finger in the ear would not be appropriate as it could affect the accuracy of the test. D: Standing at a specific distance does not ensure accurate assessment of hearing ability.
Question 7 of 9
Intraocular pressure is determined by the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because intraocular pressure is primarily determined by the amount of aqueous humor produced and the resistance to its outflow at the angle of the anterior chamber. When there is an imbalance in the production and outflow of aqueous humor, it can lead to an increase in intraocular pressure, which can result in conditions like glaucoma. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not directly influence intraocular pressure. The thickness or bulging of the lens (A) is related to accommodation for near vision, the posterior chamber accommodating fluid (B) is not a primary factor in determining intraocular pressure, and the contraction of the ciliary body (C) affects the shape of the lens for focusing rather than intraocular pressure regulation.
Question 8 of 9
While discussing the history of a 6-month-old infant, the mother tells the nurse that she took a great deal of aspirin while she was pregnant. What question would the nurse want to include in the history?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse would want to ask about the number of ear infections the baby has had since birth because aspirin exposure during pregnancy is associated with an increased risk of developing Reye's syndrome, which can lead to recurrent ear infections. This question helps assess the baby's risk for complications related to aspirin exposure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not directly related to the potential complications associated with aspirin exposure during pregnancy.
Question 9 of 9
Jaundice is manifested by a yellow skin colour, indicating rising levels of bilirubin in the blood. Which of the following findings is indicative of true jaundice?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Jaundice is characterized by a yellow skin color due to elevated bilirubin levels. Step 2: Yellow color extending up to the iris indicates systemic jaundice, involving the whole body. Step 3: Yellow patches throughout the sclera (Choice A) may not indicate systemic jaundice. Step 4: Skin appearing yellow under low light (Choice C) may not be specific to jaundice. Step 5: Yellow deposits on palms and soles (Choice D) are not typical signs of jaundice. Therefore, Choice B is correct as it reflects systemic jaundice, while the other choices do not fully align with the manifestation of true jaundice.