ATI RN
NCLEX Practice Questions Physical Assessment Questions
Question 1 of 9
A mother brings her 11 month old to you because her mother-in-law and others have told her that her baby is jaundiced. She is eating and growing well and performing the developmental milestones she should for her age. On examination you indeed notice a yellow tone to her skin from head to toe. Her sclerae are white. To which area should your next questions be related?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Since the baby is exhibiting jaundice, which is a condition characterized by the yellowing of the skin, it is important to inquire about the family history of liver diseases. Jaundice can be a sign of liver dysfunction or disease, so understanding the family history of liver diseases can provide valuable insights into potential underlying causes for the baby's jaundice. In this case, it is crucial to explore this area further to determine if there may be any genetic predispositions or familial conditions that could be contributing to the baby's presentation of jaundice.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following would lead you to suspect a hydrocele versus other causes of scrotal swelling?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A positive transillumination test is a key finding that would lead you to suspect a hydrocele as the cause of scrotal swelling. In a hydrocele, the scrotal fluid transilluminates well, meaning that when a light is shone through the scrotum, it will appear as a fluid-filled sac with a clear glow. This is a characteristic feature of a hydrocele and helps differentiate it from other causes of scrotal swelling, such as hernias or testicular tumors. Presence of bowel sounds in the scrotum (Choice A) would be concerning for a hernia rather than a hydrocele. Being unable to palpate superior to the mass (Choice B) may suggest a large hydrocele but is not specific to diagnosing a hydrocele. The normal thickness of the skin of the scrotum (Choice D) can be found in various scrotal conditions and is not specific
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following is a symptom involving the eye?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Scotomas refer to areas of partial alteration in the field of vision. These blind spots can be caused by various eye conditions such as glaucoma, retinal detachment, or optic nerve damage. Symptoms involving the eye like scotomas are important to recognize and address promptly to prevent potential vision loss or other complications. Tinnitus (choice B) refers to ringing in the ears, dysphagia (choice C) refers to difficulty swallowing, and rhinorrhea (choice D) refers to a runny nose, none of which are symptoms involving the eye.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with hearing loss by whisper test is further examined with a tuning fork, using the Weber and Rinne maneuvers. The abnormal results are as follows: bone conduction is greater than air on the left, and the patient hears the sound of the tuning fork better on the left. Which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Otosclerosis is a condition characterized by abnormal bone growth in the middle ear, specifically around the stapes bone. In cases of otosclerosis, the bone conduction is greater than air conduction on the affected side, which is seen in the scenario described. The Weber test localizes to the affected ear, meaning the patient hears the sound of the tuning fork better in the left ear in this case. This is because the abnormal bone growth can restrict the movement of the ossicles, leading to a conductive hearing loss. Otosclerosis typically affects one ear, and its presentation aligns with the results of the hearing tests performed in this case.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following lymph node groups is most commonly involved in breast cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The pectoral lymph node group, also known as the Level III lymph nodes, is the most commonly involved in breast cancer metastasis. These lymph nodes are located along the lower border of the pectoralis minor muscle and are an important regional drainage site for breast tissue. Therefore, in cases of breast cancer, the pectoral lymph nodes are frequently affected due to their proximity to the breast tissue.
Question 6 of 9
A 26-year-old woman comes to your clinic, complaining of leakage of stool despite generally normal, pain-free bowel movements. She denies any blood in her stool or on the toilet paper. She has had no recent episodes of diarrhea. Her past medical history includes a spontaneous vaginal delivery 3 months ago. She had a fourth-degree tear of the perineal area (from the vagina through the rectum) that was surgically repaired after delivery. A few days later the patient developed an abscess in the anal area that had to be incised and drained. She denies using any tobacco, alcohol, or illegal drugs. Her mother and father are both in good health. She denies any weight gain, weight loss, fever, or night sweats. She is still breast-feeding without any problems. On examination you visualize a small opening anterior to the anus with some surrounding erythema. There is not a mass or other inflammation on inspection. Digital rectal examination reveals smooth rectal walls with no blood. She has no pain during the rectal examination. Bimanual vaginal examination is also normal. What anal or rectal disorder is the most likely cause of her symptom?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The most likely cause of the woman's symptom of stool leakage despite normal bowel movements is an anorectal fistula. An anorectal fistula is an abnormal, tunnel-like connection between the anal canal or rectum and the skin around the anus. In this case, the small opening anterior to the anus with surrounding erythema on examination suggests the presence of a fistula.
Question 7 of 9
On a very busy day in the office, Mrs. Donelan, who is 81 years old, comes for her usual visit for her blood pressure. She is on a low-dose diuretic chronically and denies any side effects. Her blood pressure is 118/78 today, which is well-controlled. As you are writing her script, she mentions that it is hard not having her husband Bill around anymore. What would you do next?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: It is important to show empathy and address Mrs. Donelan's feelings about missing her husband. By asking why Bill is not there, you are opening the door for her to talk about her emotions and potentially offer support or resources. This can help build a stronger patient-provider relationship and address any underlying emotional concerns she may have. It is important to prioritize the patient's emotional well-being along with their physical health during the visit.
Question 8 of 9
His head, eyes, ears, nose, and throat examinations are unremarkable. His lungs have normal breath sounds and there are no abnormalities with percussion and palpation of the chest. His heart has a normal S and S and no S or S . Further workup is pending. 1 2 3 4 Which disorder of the chest best describes these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The symptoms described in the scenario point towards pleural pain. The examination findings of normal breath sounds, no abnormalities with percussion and palpation of the chest, and a normal heart sound (S1 and S2) suggest that the issue is more likely related to the pleura rather than the heart or major blood vessels. Pleural pain is typically sharp and worsens with deep breathing or coughing. This differs from angina pectoris, which is chest pain caused by reduced blood flow to the heart muscles due to coronary artery disease. Pericarditis involves inflammation of the pericardium, the membrane surrounding the heart, and usually presents with chest pain that is relieved by sitting up and leaning forward. Dissecting aortic aneurysm is a life-threatening condition characterized by severe, tearing chest pain that can radiate to the back. In this case, the lack of significant abnormalities on cardiac and vascular examination points towards ple
Question 9 of 9
Phil comes to your office with left "shoulder pain." You find that the pain is markedly worse when his left arm is drawn across his chest (adduction). Which of the following would you suspect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presentation of pain that is markedly worse when the left arm is drawn across the chest (adduction) is characteristic of a rotator cuff tear. This is because when the arm is adducted, it puts stress on the torn rotator cuff tendons, causing pain. In contrast, subacromial bursitis typically presents with pain during overhead movements, acromioclavicular joint involvement may present with pain localized to the joint itself, and adhesive capsulitis (frozen shoulder) typically presents with pain and stiffness that worsens with all movements.