ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Practice Exam B Questions
Question 1 of 9
A mother asks the nurse when she should give her child cough medicine. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cough medicines, like dextromethorphan, suppress nonproductive (dry) coughs to aid rest, especially when sleep is disrupted . This targets symptomatic relief appropriately, avoiding overuse. Green secretions suggest infection, where suppressing cough could hinder clearance, requiring medical evaluation instead. Fever over 102°F indicates illness severity, not a cue for cough medicine alone. Bronchitis often involves productive cough, where suppressants are less suitable. The nurse's best response (D) aligns with cough suppressants' purpose—relieving dry, disruptive coughs—ensuring safe, targeted use for the child's comfort.
Question 2 of 9
A month after receiving a blood transfusion an immunocompromised male patient develops a fever,
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A month after receiving a blood transfusion, the development of a fever in an immunocompromised patient can be indicative of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD). GVHD is a condition where the donor immune cells attack the recipient's tissues, manifesting as fever, rash, liver dysfunction, and gastrointestinal symptoms. It typically occurs a few weeks to several months after a blood transfusion, especially in immunocompromised individuals. An allergic response to medication or myelosuppression would typically present earlier after the transfusion, while nothing related to the blood transfusion does not explain the fever in this context.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse administers IV magnesium sulfate to a client with preeclampsia. Which finding indicates a therapeutic effect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate prevents seizures in preeclampsia via CNS depression. Absence of seizures indicates therapeutic effect, the primary goal. Decreased BP isn't magnesium's role'antihypertensives manage that. Increased urine output isn't specific. Reduced reflexes signal toxicity, not efficacy. Seizure prevention aligns with magnesium's mechanism, critical in preeclampsia where eclamptic risk is high, making D the key finding of successful therapy.
Question 4 of 9
The client receives diphenhydramine (Benadryl) to control allergic symptoms. Which common symptom does the nurse teach the client to report to the physician?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Diphenhydramine's anticholinergic effects include urinary hesitancy , a serious symptom risking retention, needing physician reporting. Sedation is expected. Diarrhea and vomiting aren't typical. D prioritizes significant complications, making it the key symptom.
Question 5 of 9
A patient has received an overdose of intravenous heparin, and is showing signs of excessive bleeding. Which substance is the antidote for heparin overdose?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin overdose. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the action of thrombin and factor Xa. Protamine works by binding to heparin and neutralizing its anticoagulant effects. This helps to reverse the effects of heparin and control excessive bleeding in cases of overdose. It is important to administer protamine sulfate promptly to counteract the effects of heparin and prevent further bleeding complications. Options A, B, and D are not the correct antidotes for heparin overdose.
Question 6 of 9
A mother asks the nurse when she should give her child cough medicine. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cough medicines, like dextromethorphan, suppress nonproductive (dry) coughs to aid rest, especially when sleep is disrupted . This targets symptomatic relief appropriately, avoiding overuse. Green secretions suggest infection, where suppressing cough could hinder clearance, requiring medical evaluation instead. Fever over 102°F indicates illness severity, not a cue for cough medicine alone. Bronchitis often involves productive cough, where suppressants are less suitable. The nurse's best response (D) aligns with cough suppressants' purpose—relieving dry, disruptive coughs—ensuring safe, targeted use for the child's comfort.
Question 7 of 9
Nefopam:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nefopam is contraindicated in epilepsy due to its potential for lowering the seizure threshold.
Question 8 of 9
Chris asks the nurse whether all donor blood products are cross-matched with the recipient to prevent a transfusion reaction. Which of the following always require cross-matching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Packed red blood cells (PRBCs) always require cross-matching to ensure compatibility between the donor and recipient blood types. Cross-matching involves testing the recipient's serum against the donor's red cells to detect antibodies that could cause a transfusion reaction. Granulocytes, platelets, and plasma do not require cross-matching in the same way, although they may undergo other compatibility tests. PRBCs are the most critical to match correctly due to the risk of hemolytic reactions, which can be life-threatening.
Question 9 of 9
The patient is receiving lithium (Eskalith) and asks the nurse why he has to have blood drawn so often. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lithium's narrow therapeutic range (0.6-1.2 mEq/L) requires frequent blood draws to ensure levels stay safe and effective, preventing toxicity (e.g., tremors) or subtherapeutic dosing. Side effects are monitored clinically, not just by blood. Effectiveness and response tie to levels, but ‘correct amount' is precise, addressing the patient's query directly about monitoring's purpose.