A mode of pressure-targeted ventilation that provides posiatbivirbe. cporme/tsessut re to decrease the workload of spontaneous breathing through what action by the endotracheal tube?

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Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

A mode of pressure-targeted ventilation that provides posiatbivirbe. cporme/tsessut re to decrease the workload of spontaneous breathing through what action by the endotracheal tube?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pressure support ventilation. This mode delivers a set pressure to support each spontaneous breath, decreasing the workload of breathing. Pressure support ventilation assists the patient's inspiratory efforts without providing a set tidal volume like in volume-targeted ventilation. Continuous positive airway pressure (Choice A) maintains a constant level of positive pressure throughout the respiratory cycle but does not actively support spontaneous breathing efforts. Positive end-expiratory pressure (Choice B) maintains positive pressure at the end of expiration to prevent alveolar collapse but does not directly support spontaneous breathing. T-piece adapter (Choice D) is a weaning device that allows the patient to breathe spontaneously without ventilatory support.

Question 2 of 9

The nurse is caring for a mechanically ventilated patient an d responds to a high inspiratory pressure alarm. Recognizing possible causes for the alarma, btihrbe.c nomu/rtesset assesses for which of the following? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Disconnection from the ventilator. This is the correct choice because a high inspiratory pressure alarm can indicate a disconnection, leading to inadequate ventilation and increased pressure in the circuit. This can be a life-threatening situation that requires immediate attention. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Coughing or attempting to talk - While coughing or talking may affect the patient's ability to ventilate properly, it is not directly related to the high inspiratory pressure alarm. C: Kinks in the ventilator tubing - Kinks in the tubing may cause increased resistance to airflow, but they are more likely to trigger a low pressure alarm rather than a high inspiratory pressure alarm. D: Need for suctioning - Suctioning may be necessary for airway clearance, but it is not directly related to the high inspiratory pressure alarm.

Question 3 of 9

A 28-year-old patient who has deep human bite wounds on the left hand is being treated in the urgent care center. Which action will the nurse plan to take?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Teach the patient the reason for the use of prophylactic antibiotics. This is the most important action because human bites can introduce harmful bacteria into the wound, leading to infection. Prophylactic antibiotics help prevent infection in deep human bite wounds. Choice A is incorrect because rabies immune globulin is not indicated for human bite wounds. Choice B is incorrect because suturing human bite wounds can trap bacteria and increase the risk of infection. Choice D is incorrect because keeping the wounds dry is not sufficient; proper wound cleaning and antibiotic treatment are essential in this case.

Question 4 of 9

The nurse is preparing to measure the thermodilution cardaiabicrb o.cuomtp/tuest t (TdCO) in a patient being monitored with a pulmonary artery catheter. Which action by the nurse best ensures the safety of the patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Avoid infusing vasoactive agents in the port used to obtain the TdCO measurement. This action ensures patient safety by preventing the introduction of vasoactive agents directly into the bloodstream during the measurement process. Infusing vasoactive agents can lead to inaccurate TdCO readings and potentially harm the patient. Choice A is incorrect because zero referencing the transducer system at the level of the phlebostatic axis is important for accurate pressure monitoring but not directly related to TdCO measurement safety. Choice C is incorrect as maintaining a pressure of 300 mm Hg on the flush solution bag is not directly related to the safety of TdCO measurement. Choice D is incorrect as limiting the length of noncompliant pressure tubing is important for accurate pressure readings but not directly related to the safety of TdCO measurement.

Question 5 of 9

A mode of pressure-targeted ventilation that provides posiatbivirbe. cporme/tsessut re to decrease the workload of spontaneous breathing through what action by the endotracheal tube?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pressure support ventilation. This mode delivers a set pressure to support each spontaneous breath, decreasing the workload of breathing. Pressure support ventilation assists the patient's inspiratory efforts without providing a set tidal volume like in volume-targeted ventilation. Continuous positive airway pressure (Choice A) maintains a constant level of positive pressure throughout the respiratory cycle but does not actively support spontaneous breathing efforts. Positive end-expiratory pressure (Choice B) maintains positive pressure at the end of expiration to prevent alveolar collapse but does not directly support spontaneous breathing. T-piece adapter (Choice D) is a weaning device that allows the patient to breathe spontaneously without ventilatory support.

Question 6 of 9

The nurse is caring for a patient who requires administration of a neuromuscular blocking (NMB) agent to facilitate ventilation with non-traditional m odes. The nurse understands that neuromuscular blocking agents provide what outcome?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: No sedation or analgesia. Neuromuscular blocking agents do not provide sedation or pain relief; they solely act on skeletal muscles to induce paralysis for procedures like intubation. Choice A is incorrect because NMB agents do not affect anxiety levels. Choice B is incorrect because NMB agents do not provide analgesia. Choice C is incorrect because NMB agents do not induce sedation. The primary purpose of NMB agents is to induce muscle paralysis without affecting consciousness or pain perception.

Question 7 of 9

A patient in the ICU is recovering from open-heart surgery. The nurse enters his room and observes that his daughter is performing effleurage on his arms and talking in a low voice about an upcoming family vacation that is planned. The room is dimly lit, and she hears the constant beeping of his heart monitor. From the hall she hears the cries of a patient in pain. Which of the following are likely stressors for the patient? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The beeping of the heart monitor is a likely stressor for the patient recovering from open-heart surgery in the ICU. The constant beeping can cause anxiety and uncertainty about their health status. The daughter's conversation and effleurage are likely comforting and supportive for the patient, reducing stress. The dim lighting may create a calming environment, and the distant cries of a patient in pain may evoke empathy but may not directly stress the recovering patient. Therefore, the beeping of the heart monitor stands out as a stressor among the choices provided.

Question 8 of 9

A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which additional assessment should the nurse make?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Assessing how long the client has been taking clonidine is crucial as drowsiness is a common side effect that typically improves over time as the body adjusts to the medication. This information helps determine if the drowsiness is a temporary side effect or a more concerning issue. Choice A (constipation) is not directly related to drowsiness as a side effect of clonidine. Choice B (missed doses) may contribute to drowsiness but is not the primary assessment priority. Choice D (tobacco use) is not directly related to clonidine-induced drowsiness.

Question 9 of 9

The nurse is caring for a postoperative patient with chroni c obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which assessment would be a cue to the patient developing postoperative pneumonia?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Change in sputum characteristics. This is a cue for postoperative pneumonia in a COPD patient because it can indicate an infection in the lungs. Postoperative pneumonia is a common complication in patients with COPD due to impaired lung function and weakened immune system. Other choices are incorrect: A) Bradycardia is not a specific indicator of postoperative pneumonia. C) Hypoventilation and respiratory acidosis can be seen in patients with COPD but are not specific to postoperative pneumonia. D) Pursed-lip breathing is a coping mechanism for patients with COPD and is not directly related to postoperative pneumonia.

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