Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: perimenopause. Perimenopause is the transitional period before menopause when a woman's body begins to produce less estrogen. This can lead to irregular menstrual cycles and other symptoms such as hot flashes, night sweats, and mood changes. Assessing for symptoms of perimenopause in a woman reporting irregular menses for six months is appropriate as it aligns with the timing and characteristics of this phase. Explanation for incorrect choices: A: Climacteric refers to the period of menopausal transition and is not specific to the symptoms mentioned in the scenario. B: Menopause is the cessation of menstrual periods for 12 consecutive months and is not typically associated with irregular menses. D: Postmenopause is the period after menopause has been established for at least 12 months and irregular menses would not be expected during this phase.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer nitroglycerin. The nurse should first assess the client's chest pain, then administer nitroglycerin if indicated for suspected cardiac origin. Nitroglycerin helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart. This can alleviate chest pain associated with angina or myocardial infarction. Administering morphine or aspirin should come after nitroglycerin if needed. Performing an ECG is important but should not delay immediate treatment with nitroglycerin for chest pain of cardiac origin.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct first step is to administer pain relief (Choice A) because addressing the client's pain is a top priority to ensure their comfort and well-being. Pain management is crucial post-surgery to prevent complications and aid in recovery. Monitoring vital signs (Choice B) is important but should follow pain relief to ensure the client's stability. Assessing the wound (Choice C) is necessary but not the immediate priority when the client is in acute pain. Applying a warm compress (Choice D) may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying cause of the pain. Therefore, administering pain relief is the most appropriate initial action to alleviate the client's discomfort and start the healing process effectively.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: perimenopause. Perimenopause is the transitional period before menopause when a woman's body begins to produce less estrogen. This can lead to irregular menstrual cycles and other symptoms such as hot flashes, night sweats, and mood changes. Assessing for symptoms of perimenopause in a woman reporting irregular menses for six months is appropriate as it aligns with the timing and characteristics of this phase. Explanation for incorrect choices: A: Climacteric refers to the period of menopausal transition and is not specific to the symptoms mentioned in the scenario. B: Menopause is the cessation of menstrual periods for 12 consecutive months and is not typically associated with irregular menses. D: Postmenopause is the period after menopause has been established for at least 12 months and irregular menses would not be expected during this phase.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) can cause adrenal insufficiency. 2. Corticosteroids help prevent adrenal insufficiency in TPN patients. 3. Monitoring corticosteroid administration ensures adrenal function. 4. Monitoring blood glucose or serum glucose levels is important but not specific to TPN. 5. Dehydration can be monitored but is not directly related to TPN.