ATI RN
ATI Fluid Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation Questions
Question 1 of 9
A medical-surgical nurse is concerned about the incidence of complications related to IV therapy, including bloodstream infection. Which intervention should the nurse suggest to the management team to make the biggest impact on decreasing complications
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Initiate a dedicated team to insert access devices. This intervention is the most effective in decreasing complications related to IV therapy because having a dedicated team specialized in inserting access devices ensures that the procedure is done correctly each time, reducing the risk of complications such as bloodstream infections. Choice B is not as effective because additional education for all nurses may not guarantee consistent skill levels in IV insertion. Choice C may limit access but does not address the root cause of complications. Choice D focuses on skin preparation, which is important but not as impactful as having a specialized team for IV insertion.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has just experienced a 90-second tonic-clonic seizure. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 6.88, PaO2 50 mm Hg, PaCO2 60 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Apply oxygen by mask or nasal cannula. The client is experiencing respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation and oxygenation during the seizure. Providing oxygen will help improve oxygenation and correct the respiratory acidosis. This is the priority to address the immediate physiological need. Choice B is incorrect as applying a paper bag can lead to rebreathing of carbon dioxide, worsening the respiratory acidosis. Choice C is incorrect as sodium bicarbonate is not indicated in this situation and can potentially worsen the acid-base imbalance. Choice D is incorrect as administering glucose and insulin is not relevant to correcting the respiratory acidosis.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse educator is reviewing peripheral IV insertion with a group of novice nurses. How should these nurses be encouraged to deal with excess hair at the intended site?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clip the hair in the area. Clipping the hair is the most appropriate option as it reduces the risk of infection during IV insertion by minimizing the presence of bacteria that may be trapped in the hair. Shaving (B) can cause micro-abrasions leading to increased infection risk. Leaving the hair intact (A) can also trap bacteria. Using a depilatory (D) can cause skin irritation and should be avoided. In summary, clipping the hair is the best option to maintain a clean and safe environment for IV insertion.
Question 4 of 9
You are the surgical nurse caring for a 65-year-old female patient who is postoperative day 1 following a thyroidectomy. During your shift assessment, the patient complains of tingling in her lips and fingers. She tells you that she has an intermittent spasm in her wrist and hand and she exhibits increased muscle tone. What electrolyte imbalance should you first suspect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypocalcemia. Following a thyroidectomy, there is a risk of damaging the parathyroid glands, leading to hypocalcemia. Symptoms such as tingling in lips and fingers, muscle spasms, and increased muscle tone are classic signs of hypocalcemia. The initial concern should be hypocalcemia due to its potential to cause serious complications such as tetany and laryngospasm. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the symptoms described. Hypophosphatemia may present with weakness and respiratory failure, hypermagnesemia with hypotension and respiratory depression, and hyperkalemia with muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias.
Question 5 of 9
You are the nurse caring for a 77-year-old male patient who has been involved in a motor vehicle accident. You and your colleague note that the patients labs indicate minimally elevated serum creatinine levels, which your colleague dismisses. What can this increase in creatinine indicate in older adults?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Substantially reduced renal function. In older adults, elevated serum creatinine levels can indicate impaired kidney function, as the kidneys may not filter waste products as efficiently. This can lead to a buildup of creatinine in the blood. Acute kidney injury (Choice B) is a sudden decline in kidney function and would typically present with a more significant increase in creatinine levels. Decreased cardiac output (Choice C) would not directly cause elevated creatinine levels. Alterations in the ratio of body fluids to muscle mass (Choice D) would not be a common cause of elevated creatinine levels in this scenario.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing moderate metabolic alkalosis. Which action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Teach the client fall prevention measures. In metabolic alkalosis, the client may experience muscle weakness and confusion, increasing the risk of falls. Teaching fall prevention measures is essential to ensure the client's safety. Monitoring hemoglobin and hematocrit values (A) is not directly related to managing metabolic alkalosis. Administering furosemide (B) is not appropriate for metabolic alkalosis. Encouraging deep breaths (C) may not address the underlying cause of the alkalosis.
Question 7 of 9
. A 73-year-old man comes into the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after slipping on a small carpet in his home. The patient fell on his hip with a resultant fracture. He is alert and oriented; his pupils are equal and reactive to light and accommodation. His heart rate is elevated, he is anxious and thirsty, a Foley catheter is placed, and 40 mL of urine is present. What is the nurses most likely explanation for the low urine output?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The man's elevated heart rate, anxiety, and low urine output indicate a sympathetic reaction. This reaction stimulates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, leading to decreased urine output. The sympathetic response triggers the release of renin, which activates angiotensin II and aldosterone, causing vasoconstriction and water reabsorption in the kidneys, ultimately reducing urine output. Choice A is incorrect because low urine output is not solely due to urinating before arrival. Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication of traumatic brain injury or ADH deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as atrial natriuretic peptide in heart failure typically increases urine output.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has the following arterial blood values: pH 7.12, PaO2 56 mm Hg, PaCO2 65 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. Which clinical situation should the nurse correlate with these values?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Diabetic ketoacidosis in a person with emphysema. The arterial blood values show a low pH (acidosis), high PaCO2 (respiratory acidosis), and normal HCO3 (compensatory metabolic alkalosis). This pattern is consistent with a mixed acid-base disorder seen in diabetic ketoacidosis where metabolic acidosis from ketone production is partially compensated by respiratory acidosis from decreased alveolar ventilation due to emphysema. The other choices do not align with the given blood values. Choice B is incorrect as it would typically show respiratory alkalosis. Choice C would show respiratory alkalosis with low PaCO2. Choice D would result in metabolic acidosis with low HCO3.
Question 9 of 9
You are making initial shift assessments on your patients. While assessing one patients peripheral IV site, you note edema around the insertion site. How should you document this complication related to IV therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Infiltration Rationale: 1. Infiltration occurs when IV fluid leaks into surrounding tissues, causing edema. 2. Documenting infiltration is important for appropriate management. 3. Air emboli, phlebitis, and fluid overload are unrelated to edema around IV site. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A. Air emboli: This is a serious condition caused by air entering the bloodstream, not related to edema. B. Phlebitis: Inflammation of the vein, usually presenting with redness and pain, not edema. D. Fluid overload: Excess fluid volume in the body, leading to symptoms like shortness of breath, not edema.