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Chapter 26 principles of pharmacology Questions
Question 1 of 5
A medical student is involved in a summer research project evaluating the excitatory and inhibitory effects of five neurotransmitters. Following as choices are the five neurotransmitters and their excitatory and inhibitory status. Which of the following neurotransmitters is likely to be serotonin?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is option C, Neurotransmitter C; excitatory and inhibitory, which is likely to be serotonin. Serotonin is a neurotransmitter known to have both excitatory and inhibitory effects in the central nervous system. This dual function allows serotonin to modulate various physiological processes such as mood, emotion, and sleep. Option A, Neurotransmitter A; excitatory, is incorrect because serotonin is not solely excitatory. Similarly, option B, Neurotransmitter B; excitatory, does not match the dual excitatory and inhibitory nature of serotonin. Option D, Neurotransmitter D; inhibitory, is also incorrect as serotonin is not strictly inhibitory. Educationally, understanding the diverse functions of neurotransmitters like serotonin is crucial for students studying pharmacology. This knowledge helps in comprehending the complex interactions within the nervous system and how drugs targeting these neurotransmitters can impact physiological and psychological processes. By grasping the excitatory and inhibitory roles of neurotransmitters, students can better appreciate the nuanced effects of pharmacological interventions on neurotransmission.
Question 2 of 5
The oral bioavailability of a drug:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Oral bioavailability (A) measures the extent of systemic circulation entry (e.g., fraction absorbed intact), as with aspirin (~60\%). Option B is true (excipients affect dissolution). Option C is correct (F = AUC_oral / AUC_IV). Option D is valid (CYP450 induction, e.g., rifampin, lowers F). Option E (original) about C_max is true but secondary. This extent, critical in oral dosing, reflects absorption and first-pass losses, guiding formulation and drug interaction considerations.
Question 3 of 5
The following drugs are effectively administered by the rectal route to produce their systemic effect:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metronidazole (C) is effective rectally for systemic effects (e.g., anaerobic infections), partially avoiding first-pass metabolism. Indometacin (A) is correct too but C is chosen. Sulfasalazine (B) acts locally. Glycerin (D) is local (laxative). Diazepam (original E) is systemic via rectum. Rectal administration, useful in nausea or unconsciousness, enhances metronidazole's bioavailability, a key alternative route in pharmacology.
Question 4 of 5
The following agents induce hepatic CYP450:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rifampicin (A) induces CYP450 (e.g., CYP3A4), increasing metabolism of substrates (e.g., warfarin), reducing their levels. Carbamazepine (B), St John's wort (C), and phenobarbital (D) are inducers too, correct but A is chosen. Penicillin (original E) is not. Induction, critical in drug interactions, accelerates clearance, necessitating dose adjustments, a key pharmacokinetic principle in polypharmacy.
Question 5 of 5
The following drugs must be avoided in severe renal failure (glomerular filtration rate (GFR) <10 mL/min):
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Metformin (D) must be avoided in severe renal failure (GFR <10 mL/min), risking lactic acidosis due to reduced clearance. Prednisolone (A) and amoxicillin (B) are safe with adjustment. Bumetanide (C) is usable. Oxytetracycline (original E) needs caution but not avoidance. Metformin's renal excretion, critical in diabetes, demands strict contraindication, a key safety concern in renal impairment pharmacology.