ATI RN
Microbiology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A married couple applied to the genetic consultation in order to consult about their child with multiple abnormalities (microcephaly, idiocy etc). The woman has had an illnesses during her pregnancy but she didn't take any teratogens or mutagens. The parents' and the child's karyotype is normal. Anamnesis study revealed that the family kept a cat. What gravidic disease caused the child's abnormalities?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Toxoplasmosis. Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection caused by Toxoplasma gondii, which can be transmitted to humans through contact with infected cat feces. During pregnancy, Toxoplasma infection can result in severe birth defects such as microcephaly and mental retardation in the child. In this case, the presence of a cat in the family and the child's abnormalities suggest a possible link to Toxoplasmosis. Other choices are incorrect because: B: Leishmaniasis is a parasitic disease transmitted by sandflies and does not typically cause the specific birth defects mentioned in the scenario. C: Dysentery is a bacterial infection that primarily affects the intestines and does not cause the neurological abnormalities described. D: Balantidiasis is a parasitic infection caused by Balantidium coli, a ciliated protozoan, but it is not associated with
Question 2 of 9
A Gram-negative, motile, comma-shaped bacterium was isolated from a stool sample of a patient with diarrhea. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Gram-negative, comma-shaped bacterium suggests a curved rod morphology, typical of Campylobacter jejuni. Step 2: Motility is a characteristic of Campylobacter species. Step 3: Campylobacter jejuni is a common cause of bacterial diarrhea in humans. Step 4: Vibrio cholerae causes cholera, not typically associated with comma-shaped morphology. Shigella dysenteriae and Escherichia coli are not comma-shaped.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with chronic diarrhea had a stool sample revealing cysts with four nuclei. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Entamoeba histolytica. This is because Entamoeba histolytica is known to cause amebic dysentery, leading to chronic diarrhea. The presence of cysts with four nuclei in the stool sample is characteristic of Entamoeba histolytica. Giardia lamblia (choice B) is known to cause diarrhea but does not present with cysts containing four nuclei. Balantidium coli (choice C) is a ciliated protozoan that can cause diarrhea, but it does not have cysts with four nuclei. Trichomonas hominis (choice D) is a non-pathogenic protozoan commonly found in the human colon and is not associated with causing chronic diarrhea or cysts with four nuclei.
Question 4 of 9
During a microscopy session, students examined sputum samples stained using Gram's method. Purple-stained diplococci with a capsule were observed. What microorganism is most likely present?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Purple-stained diplococci suggest Gram-positive cocci. 2. Capsule presence is a characteristic of Streptococcus pneumoniae. 3. S. pneumoniae is known to form diplococci arrangements. 4. Therefore, the microorganism most likely present is Streptococcus pneumoniae. Summary: - B: Klebsiella pneumoniae is a Gram-negative rod, not a cocci. - C: Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococcus, not a capsule producer. - D: Escherichia coli is a Gram-negative rod, not a cocci or capsule producer.
Question 5 of 9
The stain used to identify bacteria with a large amount of peptidoglycan in their cell walls is the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Negative stain. Negative staining uses acidic dyes which are repelled by the bacterial cell wall components, highlighting bacteria with a large amount of peptidoglycan. Acid-fast stain (A) is used to identify Mycobacterium species with waxy cell walls. Gram stain (B) differentiates bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative based on cell wall composition. Option D is a duplicate of option C and is incorrect.
Question 6 of 9
During the staining of sputum smear of a patient with suspected croupous pneumonia the following reactives and stainers were used: gentian violet solution, Lugol's solution, 960 spiritus and water fuchsin. What method of staining is used in this case?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leffler's method. In this staining method, gentian violet solution is used as the primary stain, followed by Lugol's solution as a mordant, 960 spiritus as a decolorizer, and water fuchsin as a counterstain. Gentian violet stains the organisms purple, Lugol's solution helps in fixing the dye, 960 spiritus decolorizes non-specifically, and water fuchsin acts as a counterstain to help visualize the bacteria. Leffler's method is specifically used for staining sputum smears in suspected cases of croupous pneumonia. Summary: B: Gram's staining uses crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, and safranin. It is mainly used for distinguishing between Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. C: Ziehl-Neelsen's staining is used for acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis using carbol fuchsin and acid-alcohol
Question 7 of 9
The intracellular fluid has a high concentration of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Sodium is the major cation in the intracellular fluid. 2. It plays a crucial role in maintaining cell volume and transmitting nerve impulses. 3. Potassium is the major cation in the extracellular fluid, not intracellular. 4. Bicarbonate and sulfate are anions and not major cations in intracellular fluid. Summary: Choice B (sodium) is correct as it is the major cation in intracellular fluid, essential for various cellular functions. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as potassium is extracellular, while bicarbonate and sulfate are anions and not predominant cations in intracellular fluid.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following statements can be applied to Chlamydia
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Gram-negative bacteria without peptidoglycan. Chlamydia is an intracellular, gram-negative bacteria that lacks peptidoglycan in its cell wall. Peptidoglycan is a key component of the cell wall in most bacteria, but Chlamydia has a unique structure without it. This makes it different from choices A, B, and C, which describe characteristics not applicable to Chlamydia. Choice A is incorrect because Chlamydia is not a gram-positive coccobacteria. Choice B is incorrect because Chlamydia does have a cell wall, albeit lacking peptidoglycan. Choice C is incorrect because Chlamydia is not a gram-negative bacteria with little peptidoglycan, but rather without it.
Question 9 of 9
What is the main function of bacterial pili?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The main function of bacterial pili is to facilitate conjugation and adhesion. Pili are hair-like appendages on bacteria that help in cell-to-cell interactions. They play a crucial role in bacterial conjugation by allowing the transfer of genetic material between cells. Additionally, pili help bacteria adhere to surfaces or host cells, aiding in colonization and biofilm formation. Choices A and D are incorrect because protein synthesis and toxin secretion are not the primary functions of pili. Choice C is incorrect as bacterial motility is mainly mediated by flagella, not pili.