A manager is working on the personnel budget for the year. The manager anticipates needing to replace 832 benefit hours. How many FTEs (Full-Time Equivalents) will be needed for replacement?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: To determine the FTEs needed, divide the total benefit hours by the standard annual benefit hours for a full-time employee. In this case, 832 benefit hours / 2080 standard annual benefit hours = 0.4 FTEs (Choice A). This is because an FTE represents the hours worked by one full-time employee in a year. Choice B (17.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it is significantly higher than the calculated 0.4 FTEs. Choice C (0.05 FTEs) is too low and does not accurately reflect the number of FTEs needed for 832 benefit hours. Choice D (1.0 FTEs) is incorrect as it assumes that 832 benefit hours equal the standard annual benefit hours for one full-time employee, which is not the case here.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Intragroup conflict. In this scenario, the conflict is happening within the staff of the medical-surgical unit, making it an intragroup conflict. The staff members belong to the same group or team, and the conflict arises within this specific group. This type of conflict typically involves disagreements, tension, or differences of opinion among members of the same group. Summary: B: Intergroup conflict involves conflicts between different groups or teams, not within the same group. C: Interpersonal conflict refers to conflicts between individuals, not within a group. D: Intrapersonal conflict involves internal conflicts within an individual, not within a group.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it prioritizes client autonomy and respects their wishes. By engaging the client and asking why they want to discuss advance directives without their partner present, the nurse acknowledges the client's right to make decisions about their own healthcare. This approach promotes open communication and allows the client to express their concerns and preferences freely. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes the client only needs information and brochures without addressing their specific needs or concerns. Choice C is incorrect as it delays addressing the client's immediate questions and concerns about advance directives. Choice D is incorrect as it disregards the client's request to discuss advance directives and focuses solely on their current feelings.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Statutory laws. Statutory laws are specific laws enacted by a legislative body, such as state Nurse Practice Acts, that regulate nursing practice. These laws outline the scope of practice, licensure requirements, and standards of care for nurses. Common laws (B) are based on court decisions and may not specifically govern nursing practice. Administrative laws (C) deal with regulations set by administrative agencies, not specific to nursing. Constitutional laws (D) are related to the constitution and its interpretation, not directly governing nursing practice.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Autonomy. Autonomy is the ethical principle that emphasizes respecting the patient's right to make their own decisions about their healthcare. In this scenario, the RN respects the patient's autonomy by providing all necessary information and allowing the patient to choose whether or not to accept a blood transfusion, despite the potential risks. This decision-making process aligns with the patient's right to self-determination. Summary of other choices: B: Nonmaleficence - Focuses on avoiding harm to the patient, but in this case, the patient's autonomy takes precedence over nonmaleficence. C: Beneficence - Involves acting in the patient's best interest, but in this scenario, the patient's autonomy to make decisions is the primary focus. D: Distributive justice - Concerns fair distribution of resources, which is not directly relevant to the patient's right to autonomy in decision-making.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome showing signs of poor skin turgor and dry oral mucosa is at risk for severe dehydration and potential complications. Assessing this patient first is crucial to address their immediate needs. Choice A is incorrect as the 19-year-old with possible dawn phenomenon can be assessed after the patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome who is at higher risk. Choice B is incorrect as a blood glucose reading of 230 mg/dL in a 35-year-old with type 1 diabetes is high but not indicative of an immediate life-threatening situation compared to severe dehydration. Choice D is incorrect as the 68-year-old with peripheral neuropathy and foot pain, while in discomfort, does not present an immediate threat to their life like severe dehydration does in a patient with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Twelve months. In traditional rating scales, evaluations are typically conducted over a period of twelve months to allow for a comprehensive assessment of an individual's performance over an extended period. This timeframe allows for a more accurate reflection of the individual's overall performance, taking into account various factors and performance trends throughout the year. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: - B: Six months: Six months is a relatively shorter timeframe compared to the traditional annual evaluation period. It may not provide a comprehensive view of the individual's performance over a longer period. - C: Three months: Three months is too short of a timeframe to evaluate performance comprehensively. It may not capture long-term performance trends and variations. - D: One month: One month is too brief to assess performance effectively. It may not account for fluctuations in performance or provide a holistic view of the individual's capabilities over time.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it provides positive reinforcement for a behavior that the nurse manager wants to encourage. By praising the CNA for her timely response to patients' call lights, the nurse manager is acting as a coach by recognizing and reinforcing a positive behavior. This approach is motivational and helps the CNA understand the importance of time management in a positive manner. Choice B is incorrect because it focuses on the CNA's appearance, which is not directly related to time management or coaching. Choice C is incorrect as it uses a threat of discipline rather than coaching to address the issue of vital signs being taken on time. Choice D is incorrect as it uses a negative statement without providing constructive feedback or coaching to address the issue of reporting blood sugar levels on time.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mentor and educator for new nurses. A nurse preceptor guides and supports new nurses in their transition to the workplace, providing mentorship and educational resources. This role involves teaching clinical skills, sharing knowledge, and offering emotional support. A: Supervisor of all nursing staff - Incorrect. A nurse preceptor focuses on mentoring new nurses, not supervising all nursing staff. C: Director of nursing services - Incorrect. The director of nursing services is a higher-level administrative position responsible for overseeing the nursing department. D: Coordinator of patient care - Incorrect. While a nurse preceptor may assist in coordinating patient care for their assigned nurse, their primary role is to mentor and educate new nurses.