ATI RN
Microbiology Chapter 10 Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A man was admitted to the hospital on the 5th day of disease that manifested itself by jaundice, muscle aching, chill, nose bleedings. In course of laboratory diagnostics a bacteriologist performed darkfield microscopy of the patient's blood drop. Name a causative agent of this disease:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leptospira interrogans. Darkfield microscopy is used to visualize spirochetes, which are spiral-shaped bacteria. Leptospira is a spirochete bacterium that causes leptospirosis, which presents with jaundice, muscle aching, chill, and nosebleeds. Leptospira is commonly transmitted through contact with contaminated water or soil. B: Borrelia dutlonii causes Lyme disease, which is transmitted by ticks and does not typically present with jaundice or nosebleeds. C: Calymmatobacterium granulomatis causes granuloma inguinale, a sexually transmitted infection that does not present with the symptoms described. D: Bartonella bacilloformis causes Carrion's disease, which presents with fever, anemia, and skin lesions but not jaundice or nosebleeds.
Question 2 of 9
All of the following infections may recur during pregnancy except:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: polyomavirus infections. Polyomavirus infections do not typically recur during pregnancy because once the virus infects the body, it remains latent without causing recurrent infections. In contrast, choices A, B, and C can recur during pregnancy due to their ability to reactivate from latency or reinfect the host. Epstein-Barr virus infections (choice A) can lead to infectious mononucleosis, herpes simplex virus infections (choice B) can cause recurrent genital or oral herpes outbreaks, and streptococcal infections (choice C) can result in recurrent throat or skin infections.
Question 3 of 9
A man was admitted to the hospital on the 5th day of disease that manifested itself by jaundice, muscle aching, chill, nose bleedings. In course of laboratory diagnostics a bacteriologist performed darkfield microscopy of the patient's blood drop. Name a causative agent of this disease:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leptospira interrogans. Darkfield microscopy is used to visualize spirochetes, which are spiral-shaped bacteria. Leptospira is a spirochete bacterium that causes leptospirosis, which presents with jaundice, muscle aching, chill, and nosebleeds. Leptospira is commonly transmitted through contact with contaminated water or soil. B: Borrelia dutlonii causes Lyme disease, which is transmitted by ticks and does not typically present with jaundice or nosebleeds. C: Calymmatobacterium granulomatis causes granuloma inguinale, a sexually transmitted infection that does not present with the symptoms described. D: Bartonella bacilloformis causes Carrion's disease, which presents with fever, anemia, and skin lesions but not jaundice or nosebleeds.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with pneumonia had sputum cultured revealing Gram-negative diplococci. The bacteria were oxidase-positive and fermentative. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neisseria meningitidis. This bacterium fits the description of Gram-negative diplococci that are oxidase-positive and fermentative. Neisseria meningitidis commonly causes pneumonia and meningitis. Choice B: Neisseria gonorrhoeae is also a Gram-negative diplococci but is not fermentative. Choice C: Moraxella catarrhalis is oxidase-positive but not fermentative. Choice D: Haemophilus influenzae is not fermentative and typically appears as pleomorphic rods, not diplococci.
Question 5 of 9
Which one is NOT included in the non-specific immune response
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Memory cells are not part of the non-specific immune response because they are a component of the specific immune response. Non-specific immune responses are immediate and target a broad range of pathogens, whereas memory cells are formed after exposure to a specific pathogen to provide a quicker and stronger response upon subsequent exposure. Lysozyme (A), Interferon (C), and Phagocytosis (D) are all part of the non-specific immune response. Lysozyme is an enzyme that destroys bacterial cell walls, interferon helps to inhibit viral replication, and phagocytosis involves the engulfing and destruction of pathogens by phagocytes. These responses are not specific to particular pathogens and are the body's first line of defense.
Question 6 of 9
“Rabbit fever,†a zoonotic disease, is caused by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rabbit fever, or tularemia, is caused by Francisella tularensis. This bacterium is known to infect a wide range of animals, including rabbits. The other choices, Bartonella henselae (causes cat scratch fever), Spirillum minus (causes rat bite fever), and Yersinia pestis (causes plague) are not associated with rabbit fever. Therefore, the correct answer is C based on the specific pathogen responsible for causing tularemia.
Question 7 of 9
A 30 y.o. patient is diagnosed with amebic dysentery. This diagnosis was bacteriologically confirmed. Name the preparation for its treatment:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Amebic dysentery is caused by the parasite Entamoeba histolytica, not bacteria. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for treating this parasitic infection. It works by disrupting the DNA structure of the parasite, leading to its death. Mebendazole (B) is used to treat certain worm infections, not amebic dysentery. Itrakonazole (C) is an antifungal medication and not effective against parasites. Furacillin (D) is an antibacterial agent and not suitable for treating parasitic infections like amebic dysentery.
Question 8 of 9
A sputum smear from a patient with pneumonia revealed Gram-positive diplococci with pointed ends surrounded by capsules. What microorganism is most likely?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Gram-positive diplococci with pointed ends indicate Streptococcus pneumoniae. 2. Presence of capsules supports the likelihood of S. pneumoniae. 3. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia. 4. Klebsiella pneumoniae is Gram-negative and does not form diplococci. 5. Neisseria meningitidis typically causes meningitis, not pneumonia. 6. Staphylococcus aureus is Gram-positive but does not typically present as diplococci in pneumonia cases.
Question 9 of 9
A man is suffering from diarrhea. In summer he spent his vacation in the south at the sea coast. Bacteria with the following properties were detected in his feces: gram-negative curved mobile monotrichous bacilli that do not produce spores or capsules. They are undemanding to nutrient medium but require alkaline reaction (Ñ€H 8.5-9.5). Described are the agents of the following enteric infection:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why the correct answer is A (Cholera): 1. Gram-negative curved mobile monotrichous bacilli: Vibrio cholerae, the causative agent of cholera, fits this description. 2. Do not produce spores or capsules: Vibrio cholerae does not produce spores or capsules. 3. Require alkaline reaction (pH 8.5-9.5): Vibrio cholerae thrives in alkaline environments. 4. Enteric infection: Cholera is a classic example of an enteric infection transmitted through contaminated food or water. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Shigellosis is caused by Shigella species, which are gram-negative, but they are not curved bacilli and do not require an alkaline pH. C: Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella Typhi, which are gram-negative but are not curved bacilli and do not require an alkaline pH.