A man was admitted to the hospital on the 5th day of disease that manifested itself by jaundice, muscle aching, chill, nose bleedings. In course of laboratory diagnostics a bacteriologist performed darkfield microscopy of the patient's blood drop. Name a causative agent of this disease:

Questions 80

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Microbiology Chapter 10 Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A man was admitted to the hospital on the 5th day of disease that manifested itself by jaundice, muscle aching, chill, nose bleedings. In course of laboratory diagnostics a bacteriologist performed darkfield microscopy of the patient's blood drop. Name a causative agent of this disease:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leptospira interrogans. Darkfield microscopy is used to visualize spirochetes, which are spiral-shaped bacteria. Leptospira is a spirochete bacterium that causes leptospirosis, which presents with jaundice, muscle aching, chill, and nosebleeds. Leptospira is commonly transmitted through contact with contaminated water or soil. B: Borrelia dutlonii causes Lyme disease, which is transmitted by ticks and does not typically present with jaundice or nosebleeds. C: Calymmatobacterium granulomatis causes granuloma inguinale, a sexually transmitted infection that does not present with the symptoms described. D: Bartonella bacilloformis causes Carrion's disease, which presents with fever, anemia, and skin lesions but not jaundice or nosebleeds.

Question 2 of 9

Tularemia is most often a:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Zoonosis. Tularemia is primarily a zoonotic disease, meaning it is transmitted from animals to humans. The bacterium that causes tularemia, Francisella tularensis, commonly infects animals like rabbits, rodents, and ticks, which serve as reservoir hosts. Humans can get infected through direct contact with infected animals, insect bites, or contaminated water or soil. This zoonotic nature of tularemia distinguishes it from anthroponosis (A), which is transmitted only between humans, and sapronosis (C), which is transmitted through non-living environmental sources. Choice D is incorrect because there is a correct answer, which is zoonosis.

Question 3 of 9

During the incubation period S. Typhi multiplies in the

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because during the incubation period of Salmonella Typhi infection, the bacteria multiply in the macrophages of the Peyer's patches and solitary follicles. This is supported by the fact that S. Typhi is an intracellular pathogen that targets the lymphoid tissues of the intestines. Macrophages in these areas serve as the primary host cells for the bacteria, allowing for their replication and evasion of the host immune response. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because S. Typhi does not primarily multiply in the small intestine enterocytes, the lumen of the small intestine, or hepatocytes during the initial stages of infection.

Question 4 of 9

Method for rapid diagnosis of some viral infections is

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because utilizing all three methods—immunofluorescence, viral neutralization reaction, and electron microscopy—provides a comprehensive and rapid diagnosis of various viral infections. Immunofluorescence detects viral antigens directly, viral neutralization reaction demonstrates the presence of specific antibodies, and electron microscopy visualizes viral particles. This combination ensures accurate and quick identification of different viruses. Choices A, B, and C alone may not cover all aspects of viral diagnosis, making them less effective compared to the comprehensive approach of using all three methods.

Question 5 of 9

Not many bacterial species in nature form spores. Which of the following genera have this ability?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bacillus, Clostridium. Both Bacillus and Clostridium are known to form spores. Bacillus species produce endospores, which are resistant structures for survival in harsh conditions, while Clostridium species also form spores for protection and dispersal. The other choices are incorrect because Borrelia and Treponema are spirochetes and do not form spores, Bacteroides and Fusobacterium are anaerobic bacteria that do not produce spores, and Bordetella and Brucella are non-spore forming bacteria as well.

Question 6 of 9

What means significant bacteriuria:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because significant bacteriuria is defined as having more than 10^5 cells in 1 ml of midstream morning urine. This concentration indicates a true infection rather than contamination. Choice B is incorrect because the amount of urine does not determine significant bacteriuria. Choice C is incorrect because even a single bacterium in urine does not necessarily indicate an infection. Choice D is incorrect because not all statements are correct; only choice A accurately defines significant bacteriuria based on the bacterial concentration in urine samples.

Question 7 of 9

... structure of bacteria are:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Cytoplasmic membrane - essential. The cytoplasmic membrane is a crucial structure in bacteria as it regulates the passage of substances in and out of the cell, provides structural support, and is essential for maintaining cell integrity. Without a functional cytoplasmic membrane, bacteria would not be able to survive. A: Nucleus is incorrect because bacteria do not have a true nucleus. B: Capsule - non-essential is incorrect because while the capsule provides protection and helps in adherence, it is not essential for bacterial survival. C: Mitochondria is incorrect because bacteria do not have mitochondria; they generate energy through other mechanisms. In summary, the cytoplasmic membrane is essential for bacterial survival, making it the correct choice among the options provided.

Question 8 of 9

A tube with bacterial culture is very cloudy on the surface but clear in the rest. This shows that:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the cloudy surface indicates that the bacteria are growing where oxygen is present (aerobes), causing turbidity. The clear bottom suggests that the bacteria are not growing in the absence of oxygen. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the observed phenomena do not necessarily indicate the need for an anaerobic chamber, enzyme deficiencies, or the microorganism being non-aerotolerant.

Question 9 of 9

Primary immunodeficiency diseases are all of the listed, EXCEPT:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gamma globulin, as it is not a primary immunodeficiency disease. Primary immunodeficiency diseases are genetic disorders that affect the immune system's ability to fight infections. A: Glanzmann-Riniker hypergammaglobulinemia is a rare primary immunodeficiency characterized by elevated levels of gammaglobulins. C: Variable hypogammaglobulinemia is a primary immunodeficiency disease where there are fluctuating levels of gammaglobulins. D: Bruton hypogammaglobulinemia, also known as X-linked agammaglobulinemia, is a primary immunodeficiency characterized by a lack of B cells and gammaglobulins. In summary, B is the correct answer as gamma globulin is not a primary immunodeficiency disease, whereas A, C, and D are all examples of primary immunodeficiency diseases affecting gammaglobulins levels.

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days