ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A man tells the nurse that his father died of prostate cancer and he is concerned about his own risk of developing the disease, having heard that prostate cancer has a genetic link. What aspect of the pathophysiology of prostate cancer would underlie the nurses response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because several studies have indeed shown an association between BRCA-2 mutation and an increased risk of prostate cancer. BRCA-2 mutation is known to be linked to an increased risk of various cancers, including prostate cancer. This genetic mutation can be inherited and passed down through generations, leading to a higher likelihood of developing prostate cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because: B: HNPCC (Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer) is not specifically associated with prostate cancer, and it is not an autosomal dominant mutation causing prostate cancer in men. C: TP53 gene is associated with other types of cancers, such as breast cancer, but not strongly linked to prostate cancer. D: Research has shown that genetics do play a role in the development of prostate cancer, contradicting the statement that genetics are unrelated to the disease.
Question 2 of 5
A patient has experienced occasional urinary incontinence in the weeks since his prostatectomy. In order to promote continence, the nurse should encourage which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pelvic floor exercises. Pelvic floor exercises help strengthen the muscles that control urination, promoting continence. These exercises can improve bladder control and reduce urinary incontinence post-prostatectomy. Intermittent urinary catheterization (B) may lead to increased risk of infection. Reduced physical activity (C) can weaken pelvic floor muscles, worsening incontinence. Active range of motion exercises (D) do not directly address urinary incontinence.
Question 3 of 5
A patient presents to the emergency department with paraphimosis. The physician is able to compress the glans and manually reduce the edema. Once the inflammation and edema subside, what is usually indicated?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Circumcision. Paraphimosis occurs when the foreskin is retracted behind the glans and cannot be returned to its original position. Once the inflammation and edema subside, circumcision is typically indicated to prevent recurrence. This procedure removes the foreskin, reducing the risk of future paraphimosis episodes. Needle aspiration of the corpus cavernosum (A) is not indicated for paraphimosis. Abstinence from sexual activity for 6 weeks (C) is not a standard treatment for paraphimosis. Administration of vardenafil (D) is used for erectile dysfunction and not indicated for paraphimosis.
Question 4 of 5
A patient is exploring treatment options after being diagnosed with age-related cataracts that affect her vision. What treatment is most likely to be used in this patients care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Surgical intervention. Cataracts are a clouding of the lens in the eye, which can lead to vision impairment. Surgery is the most common and effective treatment for cataracts, involving the removal of the cloudy lens and replacement with an artificial one. Antioxidant supplements (Choice A) may help prevent cataracts but are not a treatment for existing ones. Eyeglasses or magnifying lenses (Choice B) can help with vision correction but do not address the cataracts themselves. Corticosteroid eye drops (Choice C) are used for treating inflammation in the eye, not cataracts. Therefore, surgical intervention is the most appropriate treatment option for age-related cataracts.
Question 5 of 5
The nurses assessment of a patient with significant visual losses reveals that the patient cannot count fingers. How should the nurse proceed with assessment of the patients visual acuity?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the patient's inability to count fingers indicates severe visual impairment. Testing hand motion perception is a more appropriate initial assessment for patients with such significant visual losses. This method can differentiate between light perception and no light perception, providing valuable information about the patient's visual acuity. The other choices are incorrect because assessing vision using a Snellen chart (A) requires more visual acuity than just being able to see hand motion. Performing a detailed examination of external eye structures (C) and palpating periocular regions (D) are not relevant for assessing visual acuity and do not provide information on the patient's ability to perceive hand motion.