ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A man tells the nurse that his father died of prostate cancer and he is concerned about his own risk of developing the disease, having heard that prostate cancer has a genetic link. What aspect of the pathophysiology of prostate cancer would underlie the nurses response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because several studies have indeed shown an association between BRCA-2 mutation and an increased risk of prostate cancer. BRCA-2 mutation is known to be linked to an increased risk of various cancers, including prostate cancer. This genetic mutation can be inherited and passed down through generations, leading to a higher likelihood of developing prostate cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because: B: HNPCC (Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer) is not specifically associated with prostate cancer, and it is not an autosomal dominant mutation causing prostate cancer in men. C: TP53 gene is associated with other types of cancers, such as breast cancer, but not strongly linked to prostate cancer. D: Research has shown that genetics do play a role in the development of prostate cancer, contradicting the statement that genetics are unrelated to the disease.
Question 2 of 9
A patient who is scheduled for an open prostatectomy is concerned about the potential effects of the surgery on his sexual function. What aspect of prostate surgery should inform the nurses response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Prostate surgery can damage nerves responsible for erectile function. Step 2: Nerve damage can lead to erectile dysfunction post-prostatectomy. Step 3: Choice B correctly states that all prostatectomies carry a risk of nerve damage and consequent erectile dysfunction, aligning with the potential impact of surgery on sexual function. Step 4: Other choices lack accuracy: A incorrectly attributes erectile dysfunction solely to hormonal changes, C falsely suggests temporary nature of dysfunction, and D wrongly claims no risk of dysfunction due to modern techniques.
Question 3 of 9
Which clinical intervention is the only known cure for preeclampsia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delivery of the fetus. The only known cure for preeclampsia is the delivery of the fetus, as this condition typically resolves after giving birth. Since preeclampsia can lead to serious complications for both the mother and baby, delivering the fetus is the most effective way to stop the progression of the condition. Magnesium sulfate (choice A) is used to prevent seizures in women with severe preeclampsia but does not cure the condition. Antihypertensive medications (choice C) are used to manage blood pressure in preeclampsia but do not cure it. Administration of aspirin (choice D) is used for prevention, not as a cure for preeclampsia.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is providing care to a patient with anindwelling catheter. Which practice indicates the nurse is following guidelines for avoiding catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drapes the urinary drainage tubing with no dependent loops. This practice helps prevent CAUTI by ensuring that urine does not flow back into the bladder, reducing the risk of infection. Dependent loops can lead to stagnant urine, providing a breeding ground for bacteria. Choice B is incorrect because washing the drainage tube towards the meatus can introduce bacteria into the urinary tract, increasing the risk of infection. Choice C is incorrect because placing the drainage bag on the floor can introduce contaminants from the floor into the system. Choice D is incorrect because allowing the spigot to touch the receptacle can lead to contamination and increase the risk of infection.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is auditing and monitoring patients’ health records. Which action is the nurse taking?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: The nurse is auditing and monitoring patients' health records, indicating a review process. Step 2: By reviewing patients' health records, the nurse is determining the degree to which standards of care are met. Step 3: This action aligns with auditing, which involves assessing if care meets established standards. Step 4: The other choices are incorrect because they do not directly involve auditing or monitoring for compliance with standards of care. Choice B talks about undocumented care, C about reimbursement, and D about treatment outcomes comparison.
Question 6 of 9
A patient has just died following urosepsis that progressed to septic shock. The patients spouse says, I knew this was coming, but I feel so numb and hollow inside. The nurse should know that these statements are characteristic of what?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Complicated grief and mourning. This is characterized by a sense of emotional numbness and feeling hollow inside, which the patient's spouse is experiencing after the patient's death. Complicated grief involves intense and prolonged mourning that may interfere with daily functioning. Other choices are incorrect because: B: Uncomplicated grief and mourning typically involves a range of emotions, including sadness and sorrow, but not the profound numbness and emptiness described. C: Depression stage of dying refers to a stage in the Kubler-Ross model, but the patient's spouse is not the one dying, so this does not apply. D: Acceptance stage of dying involves coming to terms with one's impending death, not the aftermath of losing a loved one to sepsis.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with suspected Parkinsons disease is initially being assessed by the nurse. When is the best time to assess for the presence of a tremor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: When the patient is resting. This is because the tremor associated with Parkinson's disease is most noticeable when the patient is at rest due to the characteristic "resting tremor" seen in this condition. The tremor tends to lessen or disappear with purposeful movements or activities, making it more difficult to assess during ambulation, meal preparation, or occupational therapy. By observing the patient at rest, the nurse can accurately assess the presence and severity of the tremor, which is a key diagnostic feature of Parkinson's disease. Other answer choices are incorrect because they do not provide the optimal condition for assessing the tremor associated with Parkinson's disease.
Question 8 of 9
An oncology nurse is contributing to the care of a patient who has failed to respond appreciably to conventional cancer treatments. As a result, the care team is considering the possible use of biologic response modifiers (BRFs). The nurse should know that these achieve a therapeutic effect by what means?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Focusing the patient's immune system exclusively on the tumor. Biologic response modifiers (BRMs) work by enhancing the body's natural defenses to target and attack cancer cells specifically. This approach helps the immune system to recognize and destroy cancer cells while minimizing harm to normal cells. A: Promoting the synthesis and release of leukocytes - This is not the primary mechanism of action for BRMs. While leukocytes play a role in the immune response, BRMs target the immune system's response to tumors. C: Potentiating the effects of chemotherapeutic agents and radiation therapy - While some BRMs may be used in combination with these treatments, their primary mode of action is not to enhance the effects of chemotherapy or radiation therapy. D: Altering the immunologic relationship between the tumor and the patient - This choice is too broad and vague. BRMs specifically aim to direct the immune response towards targeting the tumor cells, rather than altering the overall immunologic relationship
Question 9 of 9
A patients most recent diagnostic imaging has revealed that his lung cancer has metastasized to his bones and liver. What is the most likely mechanism by which the patients cancer cells spread?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hematologic spread. In this case, the cancer cells have traveled through the bloodstream to reach the bones and liver. This process is known as hematologic spread, where cancer cells enter the blood vessels and spread to distant organs. Lymphatic circulation (B) involves the spread of cancer cells through the lymphatic system, which is less likely in this scenario. Invasion (C) refers to cancer cells infiltrating nearby tissues, not distant organs. Angiogenesis (D) is the process of new blood vessel formation to support tumor growth, but it does not explain the spread of cancer cells to other organs.