ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A man tells the nurse that his father died of prostate cancer and he is concerned about his own risk of developing the disease, having heard that prostate cancer has a genetic link. What aspect of the pathophysiology of prostate cancer would underlie the nurses response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because several studies have indeed shown an association between BRCA-2 mutation and an increased risk of prostate cancer. BRCA-2 mutation is known to be linked to an increased risk of various cancers, including prostate cancer. This genetic mutation can be inherited and passed down through generations, leading to a higher likelihood of developing prostate cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because: B: HNPCC (Hereditary Nonpolyposis Colorectal Cancer) is not specifically associated with prostate cancer, and it is not an autosomal dominant mutation causing prostate cancer in men. C: TP53 gene is associated with other types of cancers, such as breast cancer, but not strongly linked to prostate cancer. D: Research has shown that genetics do play a role in the development of prostate cancer, contradicting the statement that genetics are unrelated to the disease.
Question 2 of 9
A patient has experienced occasional urinary incontinence in the weeks since his prostatectomy. In order to promote continence, the nurse should encourage which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pelvic floor exercises. Pelvic floor exercises help strengthen the muscles that control urination, promoting continence. These exercises can improve bladder control and reduce urinary incontinence post-prostatectomy. Intermittent urinary catheterization (B) may lead to increased risk of infection. Reduced physical activity (C) can weaken pelvic floor muscles, worsening incontinence. Active range of motion exercises (D) do not directly address urinary incontinence.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is developing a plan to reduce data entryerrors and maintain confidentiality. Which guidelines should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Implement an automatic sign-off. This guideline helps reduce data entry errors by ensuring that all entries are completed and saved before exiting the system, thus maintaining confidentiality. Bypassing the firewall (A) would compromise data security. Creating a password with just letters (C) may not be secure enough. Using a programmed speed-dial key when faxing (D) is unrelated to reducing data entry errors or maintaining confidentiality.
Question 4 of 9
For which of the following population groups would an annual clinical breast examination be recommended?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Women over age 40. Annual clinical breast examinations are recommended for this population group because they have an increased risk of developing breast cancer compared to younger age groups. Regular screenings starting at age 40 can help in early detection and improve survival rates. A: Women over age 21 - This age group is generally recommended to start clinical breast examinations every 1-3 years, not necessarily annually. B: Women over age 25 - While it's important to be vigilant about breast health, the risk of breast cancer increases with age, making annual exams more crucial for older women. D: All post-pubescent females with a family history of breast cancer - While family history is a risk factor, the recommendation for annual clinical breast examinations typically begins at age 40, regardless of family history.
Question 5 of 9
A patient is experiencing oliguria. Which actionshould the nurse performfirst?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess for bladder distention. Oliguria indicates decreased urine output, which could be due to urinary retention. Assessing for bladder distention helps identify the underlying cause. Requesting diuretics (B) without assessing first is premature. Increasing IV fluid rate (C) may worsen the situation if there is urinary retention. Encouraging caffeinated beverages (D) is not appropriate as they can worsen dehydration.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is providing care for a patient who has experienced a type I hypersensitivity reaction. What condition is an example of such a reaction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anaphylactic reaction after a bee sting. Type I hypersensitivity reactions involve an immediate response triggered by exposure to an allergen, leading to the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators. In this case, a bee sting would introduce an allergen, causing a rapid and severe systemic reaction, known as anaphylaxis. B: Skin reaction resulting from adhesive tape is an example of a Type IV hypersensitivity reaction, mediated by T cells, not IgE antibodies as in Type I reactions. C: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder involving antibodies attacking acetylcholine receptors, not a Type I hypersensitivity reaction. D: Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disorder involving immune complexes and inflammatory responses, not a Type I hypersensitivity reaction.
Question 7 of 9
A patient who had premature rupture of the membranes (PROM) earlier in the pregnancy at 28 weeks returns to the labor unit 1 week later complaining that she is now in labor. The labor and birth nurse performs the NfollRowiIng aGssesBsm.eCntsM. The vaginal exam is deferred until the U S N T O physician is in attendance. The patient is placed on electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) and a baseline FHR of 130 bpm is noted. No contraction pattern is observed. The patient is then transferred to the antepartum unit for continued observation. Several hours later, the patient complains that she does not feel the baby move. Examination of the abdomen reveals a fundal height of 34 cm. Muscle tone is no different from earlier in the hospital admission. The patient is placed on the EFM and no fetal heart tones are observed. What does the nurse suspect is occurring?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hidden placental abruption. In this scenario, the patient had PROM and is now presenting with decreased fetal movement and absence of fetal heart tones after a fundal height increase. These signs suggest a hidden placental abruption, where the placenta has partially detached, leading to fetal distress and potential fetal demise. The absence of contractions rules out active labor (B) as the cause. Placental previa (A) would typically present with painless vaginal bleeding, which is not described in the scenario. Placental abruption (C) usually presents with painful vaginal bleeding, which is also not mentioned. Therefore, the most likely explanation for the symptoms described is a hidden placental abruption.
Question 8 of 9
As a staff member in a local hospice, a nurse deals with death and dying on a frequent basis. Where would be the safe venue for the nurse to express her feelings of frustration and grief about a patient who has recently died?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: At a memorial service. This is a safe venue for the nurse to express her feelings of frustration and grief about a patient who has recently died because a memorial service is specifically designed to honor and remember the deceased. It provides a supportive and understanding environment where emotions can be shared openly without judgment. The nurse can find comfort in sharing her feelings with others who have also been impacted by the patient's passing. Incorrect choices: A: In the cafeteria - Not an appropriate setting for expressing personal emotions related to death and dying. B: At a staff meeting - Might not be the most suitable place as the focus is on work-related matters. C: At a social gathering - Not specifically designed for processing grief and may not provide the necessary support and understanding.
Question 9 of 9
A patient is brought to the emergency department (ED) in a state of anaphylaxis. What is the ED nurses priority for care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Protect the patient's airway. In anaphylaxis, airway compromise can lead to respiratory distress and even respiratory arrest. The priority is to ensure the patient has a patent airway to maintain oxygenation. This can be achieved through interventions such as positioning, oxygen therapy, and potentially intubation if needed. Monitoring the patient's level of consciousness (A) is important but secondary to ensuring airway patency. Providing psychosocial support (C) is not the immediate priority in anaphylaxis. Administering medications (D) is also important but only after ensuring the airway is protected.