A man‘s blood type is AB and he requires a blood transfusion. To prevent complications of blood incompatibilities, which blood type may the client receive?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because individuals with AB blood type are considered universal recipients, meaning they can receive blood from any blood type without risking complications due to incompatibility. This is because their blood cells have both A and B antigens and do not produce antibodies against either type. Therefore, the client can safely receive blood from types A, B, AB, or O without adverse reactions. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they limit the options for blood transfusion based on the client's AB blood type, which is not necessary given the unique nature of AB blood as universal recipients.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: A decreased number of functioning acetyl-choline receptor sites. This is because in diseases like myasthenia gravis, there is an autoimmune attack on acetylcholine receptor sites, leading to decreased functionality. Choice A is incorrect because it refers to a genetic defect in acetylcholine production, which is not typically the cause of myasthenia gravis. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests a reduced amount of acetylcholine, which is not the primary issue in myasthenia gravis. Choice D is incorrect as it mentions inhibition of the enzyme Ache, which is not the main mechanism in this disease.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased ICP. Decreasing level of consciousness is a classic sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) due to the compression of the brain. As ICP rises, it impairs cerebral perfusion leading to altered mental status. Parasympathetic response (B) and sympathetic response (C) are related to autonomic nervous system functions, not consciousness. Increased cerebral blood flow (D) might lead to conditions like hyperemia but does not directly cause a decreased level of consciousness.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. In acute Addisonian crisis, the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol and aldosterone, leading to electrolyte imbalances. This results in increased potassium levels (hyperkalemia) due to lack of aldosterone to promote potassium excretion. Hypernatremia (choice B) is less likely as aldosterone deficiency leads to sodium loss. Reduced BUN (choice C) is unlikely as Addison's crisis does not directly affect urea levels. Hyperglycemia (choice D) is not typically seen in Addisonian crisis as cortisol deficiency usually results in hypoglycemia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because using a PICOT question involves formulating a research question to guide evidence-based practice. B indicates the nurse is implementing interventions based on scientific research, aligning with the PICOT framework (Patient, Intervention, Comparison, Outcome, Timeframe). This approach ensures that care decisions are supported by the best available evidence, leading to improved patient outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because practicing nursing based on court evidence does not align with the PICOT framework. Choice C is incorrect as using standardized care plans for all patients may not consider individual patient needs and preferences as required in a PICOT question. Choice D is incorrect as planning care based on tradition does not involve integrating current research evidence as in the PICOT approach.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action is to report the ulcer to the admitting care provider first. This is essential because the ulcer could be a sign of an underlying infection or condition that needs immediate attention, especially in a hospitalized patient with pneumonia. Reporting the ulcer ensures prompt evaluation and appropriate treatment. The other options are incorrect because teaching about STD prevention and asking about syphilis assume the cause of the ulcer is related to a sexually transmitted infection, which may not be the case in this scenario. Additionally, cleaning the ulcer without proper assessment and diagnosis by a healthcare provider can lead to complications or delay in appropriate treatment.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it focuses on the client actively engaging in reducing tension, which is essential in managing anxiety. This outcome is measurable and client-centered. A: Verbalizing feelings is important, but it does not necessarily lead to reduction in anxiety. B: Not guessing prognosis is helpful, but it does not address the active management of anxiety. D: Stopping seeking information may not be beneficial as knowledge can empower the client in coping with the diagnosis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor temperature every 4hrs. This is crucial in detecting signs of urinary tract infection as fever is a common symptom. Monitoring temperature regularly allows for early detection and appropriate intervention. A: Encouraging the client to breathe deeply and cough every 2hrs is a measure to prevent respiratory complications postoperatively, not related to UTI detection. C: Splinting the incision when repositioning the client is important for wound care, not for detecting UTI. D: Irrigating tubes as ordered is a specific intervention for tube care, not for monitoring UTI symptoms.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Obesity. Obesity is a known risk factor for colon cancer as it can lead to chronic inflammation and changes in hormone levels, increasing the risk of developing cancerous cells in the colon. Smoking (choice A) is more strongly associated with lung cancer. Heavy alcohol consumption (choice B) is linked to increased risk of liver and esophageal cancer, not colon cancer. Saccharin consumption (choice D) has not been definitively linked to colon cancer. In summary, obesity is the most relevant risk factor for colon cancer among the choices provided.