ATI RN
Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A man‘s blood type is AB and he requires a blood transfusion. To prevent complications of blood incompatibilities, which blood type may the client receive?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because individuals with AB blood type are considered universal recipients, meaning they can receive blood from any blood type without risking complications due to incompatibility. This is because their blood cells have both A and B antigens and do not produce antibodies against either type. Therefore, the client can safely receive blood from types A, B, AB, or O without adverse reactions. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they limit the options for blood transfusion based on the client's AB blood type, which is not necessary given the unique nature of AB blood as universal recipients.
Question 2 of 9
A 52-year old female tells the nurse that she has found a painless lump in her right breast during her monthly self-examination. Which assessment finding would strongly suggest that this client’s lump is cancerous?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Non-mobile mass with irregular edges. A non-mobile mass with irregular edges is more likely to be cancerous as it indicates potential infiltration into surrounding tissues. This finding raises suspicion for malignancy as cancerous lumps tend to have irregular shapes due to their invasive nature. In contrast, options A and B describe characteristics of benign masses, such as mobile, soft, and easily delineated. Option D indicates no palpable lymph nodes, which does not directly correlate with the characteristics of the breast lump. Therefore, option C is the most concerning and indicative of a potentially cancerous lesion based on the assessment findings provided.
Question 3 of 9
A client undergoes a biopsy of a suspicious lesion. The biopsy report classifies the lesion according to the TNM staging system as follows: TIS, NO, MO. What does this classification mean?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: TIS stands for carcinoma in situ, which means cancer cells are present only in the layer of cells where they first developed. Step 2: N0 indicates no abnormal regional lymph nodes are involved. Step 3: M0 signifies no evidence of distant metastasis. Therefore, the correct answer is B because it accurately interprets the TNM staging system for the biopsy report. Summary: A: Incorrect - TIS indicates carcinoma in situ, not no evidence of primary tumor. C: Incorrect - TIS already assesses tumor presence, ruling out this option. D: Incorrect - TIS is not about ascending degrees of distant metastasis.
Question 4 of 9
The primary underlying disorder of pulmonary edema is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Pulmonary edema is caused by fluid accumulation in the lungs due to increased pressure in the pulmonary vasculature. Step 2: Decreased left ventricular pumping leads to congestive heart failure, causing increased pressure in pulmonary circulation. Step 3: This increased pressure forces fluid from the capillaries into the alveoli, causing pulmonary edema. Step 4: Increased left atrial contractility (B) would not directly lead to pulmonary edema. Step 5: Decreased right ventricular elasticity (C) and increased right atrial pressure (D) are not directly related to the pathophysiology of pulmonary edema. Summary: The correct answer is A because decreased left ventricular pumping directly contributes to the increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation that leads to pulmonary edema. Choices B, C, and D do not align with the primary underlying disorder of pulmonary edema.
Question 5 of 9
To supplement a diet with foods high in potassium, the nurse should recommend the addition of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fruits such as bananas. Bananas are high in potassium, which is essential for various bodily functions like muscle contractions and maintaining fluid balance. Fruits are a natural source of potassium and are easily incorporated into the diet. Milk and yogurt (B) are good sources of calcium, not potassium. Green leafy vegetables (C) are nutritious but may not provide as much potassium as fruits. Nuts and legumes (D) are good sources of protein and healthy fats but are not as rich in potassium as fruits like bananas.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following measures will not help correct the patient’s condition
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Providing oral care does not directly address fluid balance or hydration status. 2. Oral care focuses on maintaining oral hygiene and preventing infections. 3. Choices A, B, and D all involve fluid intake to address dehydration. 4. Offering large amounts of fluid, enteral or parenteral fluids, and small volumes at frequent intervals all aim to correct the patient's condition by replenishing lost fluids. Summary: Choice C is incorrect because oral care does not directly address the patient's dehydration. Choices A, B, and D are better options as they focus on fluid replacement to correct the patient's condition.
Question 7 of 9
For a patient receiving furosemide, the nurse evaluates the medication as being effective if which of the following effects occurs?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urine output increased. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works by increasing urine output, thus helping to reduce fluid volume in the body. This effect is crucial in managing conditions like heart failure and edema. Increased urine output indicates that the medication is working as intended. Choice B: Heart rate increased is incorrect as furosemide does not directly affect heart rate. Choice C: Serum potassium decreased is incorrect as furosemide can lead to potassium loss, but this is not the primary indicator of its effectiveness. Choice D: Pulse pressure increased is incorrect as furosemide does not typically impact pulse pressure.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has an open wound and is evaluating the progress of wound healing. Which priority action will the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because measuring the wound and observing for redness, swelling, or drainage are essential steps in evaluating wound healing progress. Measuring the wound provides objective data on its size changes, while observing for signs of infection like redness, swelling, or drainage helps identify complications. - Choice A is incorrect because the nursing assistive personnel may not have the necessary knowledge to assess wound healing accurately. - Choice B is incorrect because documenting progress as "better" without objective data is subjective and does not provide a clear picture of the wound status. - Choice D is incorrect because leaving the dressing off can expose the wound to contaminants and compromise healing, making it a potentially harmful action.
Question 9 of 9
A community nurse will perform chest physiotherapy for Mrs. Dy every 3 hours. It is important for the nurse to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because performing chest physiotherapy (CPT) at least two hours after meals helps prevent aspiration during the procedure. This timing reduces the risk of vomiting or regurgitation of food during CPT, which could lead to aspiration pneumonia. Slapping the chest wall gently (A) may not effectively clear secretions. Using vibration techniques (B) is not typically recommended for routine CPT. Planning apical drainage at the beginning of the session (D) is not necessary as it is not a standard practice for CPT.