A man‘s blood type is AB and he requires a blood transfusion. To prevent complications of blood incompatibilities, which blood type may the client receive?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because individuals with AB blood type are considered universal recipients, meaning they can receive blood from any blood type without risking complications due to incompatibility. This is because their blood cells have both A and B antigens and do not produce antibodies against either type. Therefore, the client can safely receive blood from types A, B, AB, or O without adverse reactions. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they limit the options for blood transfusion based on the client's AB blood type, which is not necessary given the unique nature of AB blood as universal recipients.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because individuals with AB blood type are considered universal recipients, meaning they can receive blood from any blood type without risking complications due to incompatibility. This is because their blood cells have both A and B antigens and do not produce antibodies against either type. Therefore, the client can safely receive blood from types A, B, AB, or O without adverse reactions. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they limit the options for blood transfusion based on the client's AB blood type, which is not necessary given the unique nature of AB blood as universal recipients.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: A latex condom with spermicide provides the best protection against HIV transmission during sexual intercourse. Rationale: 1. Latex condoms create a physical barrier that helps prevent the exchange of bodily fluids containing HIV. 2. Spermicide can further reduce the risk of HIV transmission by killing some viruses and bacteria. 3. Research shows that consistent and correct use of condoms is highly effective in reducing the risk of HIV transmission. 4. Other choices are incorrect: - A: Unprotected sex between HIV-positive individuals can lead to the transmission of drug-resistant strains or different strains of HIV. - C: Contraceptive methods like birth control pills do not protect against HIV transmission. - D: The intrauterine device is not specifically recommended for clients with HIV due to potential risks of infection.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because data validation involves comparing data with other sources to ensure accuracy. This step ensures that the data is reliable and error-free. Option A is incorrect as data validation typically comes after data collection and cleaning, which precede data interpretation. Option B is incorrect as validation does not specifically focus on professional standards but rather on accuracy and consistency. Option D is incorrect as data interpretation involves analyzing and deriving insights from the validated data, not looking for patterns in professional standards.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because performing chest physiotherapy (CPT) at least two hours after meals helps prevent aspiration during the procedure. This timing reduces the risk of vomiting or regurgitation of food during CPT, which could lead to aspiration pneumonia. Slapping the chest wall gently (A) may not effectively clear secretions. Using vibration techniques (B) is not typically recommended for routine CPT. Planning apical drainage at the beginning of the session (D) is not necessary as it is not a standard practice for CPT.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. In acute Addisonian crisis, the adrenal glands do not produce enough cortisol and aldosterone, leading to electrolyte imbalances. This results in increased potassium levels (hyperkalemia) due to lack of aldosterone to promote potassium excretion. Hypernatremia (choice B) is less likely as aldosterone deficiency leads to sodium loss. Reduced BUN (choice C) is unlikely as Addison's crisis does not directly affect urea levels. Hyperglycemia (choice D) is not typically seen in Addisonian crisis as cortisol deficiency usually results in hypoglycemia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because nurse-initiated interventions involve autonomous actions based on clinical judgment to achieve client outcomes. Nurses assess, plan, and implement care independently. Choice A involves physician orders, not nurse-initiated actions. Choice C relates to medical treatment, not nursing interventions. Choice D focuses on collaboration with other providers, not solely nurse-initiated actions. In summary, only choice B aligns with the independent and outcome-focused nature of nurse-initiated interventions.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Kaposi’s sarcoma. This is a common AIDS-related cancer caused by Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) in immunosuppressed individuals. It presents as purplish lesions on the skin and mucous membranes. Squamous cell carcinoma (A) is not specific to AIDS. Leukemia (B) and Multiple myeloma (C) are not commonly associated with AIDS. Kaposi’s sarcoma is the hallmark cancer seen in AIDS patients due to their weakened immune system.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Enalapril maleate is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. 2. ACE inhibitors like enalapril maleate block the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. 3. By inhibiting the formation of angiotensin II, enalapril maleate decreases the levels of angiotensin II. 4. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, so decreasing its levels leads to vasodilation and decreased blood pressure. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: - Choice B: Enalapril maleate primarily dilates arterioles by decreasing angiotensin II levels, not veins. - Choice C: Enalapril maleate does not directly adjust extracellular volume; it primarily affects the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. - Choice D: Enalapril maleate