ATI RN
nclex physical and health assessment questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A man comes to the emergency department after he had participated in a boxing match, and his left eye is swollen almost shut. He has bruises on his face and neck. He says he is worried because he"can't see well" from his left eye. The physician suspects retinal damage. Signs of retinal detachment include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: shadow or diminished vision in one quadrant or one half of the visual field. Retinal detachment can cause a shadow or reduced vision specifically in one quadrant or one half of the visual field due to the detachment of the sensory retina from the underlying retinal pigment epithelium. This occurs because the detached retina disrupts the normal function of the photoreceptor cells leading to visual disturbances in that specific area. A: Loss of central vision is not a typical sign of retinal detachment, as it usually affects peripheral vision initially. C: Loss of peripheral vision can occur in retinal detachment, but it is not a defining characteristic as the detachment typically affects a specific quadrant or half of the visual field. D: Sudden loss of pupillary constriction and accommodation is not directly related to retinal detachment but may be seen in other eye conditions like acute angle-closure glaucoma.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is performing an assessment on a 7-year-old child who has the following symptoms: chronic watery eyes, sneezing, and clear nasal drainage. The nurse notes the presence of a transverse line across the bridge of the nose, dark blue shadows under the eyes, and a double crease on the lower eyelids. These findings are characteristic of:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: allergies. The symptoms described such as chronic watery eyes, sneezing, and clear nasal drainage are classic signs of allergies. The presence of a transverse line across the bridge of the nose, dark blue shadows under the eyes, and a double crease on the lower eyelids are typical physical exam findings in children with allergic rhinitis. These signs are known as Dennie-Morgan lines, allergic shiners, and allergic crease respectively. Allergies are the most likely cause based on the symptoms and physical exam findings. Sinus infection (choice B) typically presents with purulent nasal discharge and facial pain. Nasal congestion (choice C) usually involves nasal stuffiness and may not present with the specific eye findings mentioned. An upper respiratory infection (choice D) may present with fever, cough, and nasal discharge, but the eye findings described are not characteristic of an upper respiratory infection.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse notices that the patient has bluish white, red-based spots in her mouth that are elevated about 1 to 3 mm. What other signs would the nurse expect to find in this patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the description of a red-purple, maculopapular, blotchy rash behind the ears and on the face is characteristic of a condition called Koplik spots, which are associated with measles. Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that presents with symptoms such as cough, runny nose, high fever, and a widespread rash. The presence of Koplik spots in the mouth is a classic early sign of measles. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the specific description of the patient's mouth spots or other expected signs of measles. It's essential for the nurse to recognize the unique features of Koplik spots to promptly identify and manage measles infection.
Question 4 of 9
An ophthalmic examination reveals papilledema. The nurse is aware that this finding indicates:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: increased intracranial pressure. Papilledema is swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure in the brain. It is a sign of serious conditions like brain tumors, head trauma, or hydrocephalus. The other choices are incorrect because retinal detachment presents with visual disturbances and floaters (A), diabetic retinopathy with retinal damage due to diabetes (B), and acute-angle glaucoma with sudden eye pain and blurred vision (C). Papilledema specifically indicates increased intracranial pressure, making choice D the correct answer.
Question 5 of 9
While discussing the history of a 6-month-old infant, the mother tells the nurse that she took a great deal of aspirin while she was pregnant. What question would the nurse want to include in the history?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. The nurse would want to ask about the number of ear infections the baby has had since birth because aspirin exposure during pregnancy is associated with an increased risk of developing Reye's syndrome, which can lead to recurrent ear infections. This question helps assess the baby's risk for complications related to aspirin exposure. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not directly related to the potential complications associated with aspirin exposure during pregnancy.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with a middle ear infection asks the nurse,"What does the middle ear do?" The nurse says that the function of the middle ear is to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. The middle ear conducts sound vibrations from the outer ear to the inner ear via the ossicles. 2. This transmission is essential for the inner ear to convert the vibrations into electrical signals for the brain to interpret as sound. 3. Maintaining balance (A) is the function of the inner ear's vestibular system. 4. Interpreting sounds (B) is done by the brain, not the middle ear. 5. Increasing amplitude (D) would distort sound perception, not enable inner ear function.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following best describes the test to assess the function of cranial nerve (CN) X?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because cranial nerve X, also known as the vagus nerve, controls the movement of the soft palate and uvula. Asking the patient to say "ahhh" assesses the function of CN X as the soft palate and uvula should elevate symmetrically. A: Observing the patient's ability to articulate specific words does not specifically test CN X function. B: Assessing movement of the hard palate and uvula with the gag reflex primarily tests CN IX (glossopharyngeal nerve). C: Having the patient stick out the tongue and observing for tremors or pulling to one side primarily tests CN XII (hypoglossal nerve).
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is palpating the sinus areas. If they are normal, which of the following would the patient report?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: No sensation. When the sinus areas are normal, the patient should not feel any discomfort or pain upon palpation. This indicates that there is no inflammation or infection present. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because feeling firm pressure, experiencing pain during palpation, or feeling pain behind the eyes would suggest abnormalities in the sinuses, such as congestion, inflammation, or infection. Therefore, the absence of any sensation is the expected response when the sinuses are normal.
Question 9 of 9
The temporomandibular joint is just below the temporal artery and anterior to the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: mandible. The temporomandibular joint is located just below the temporal artery and it connects the mandible (lower jaw) to the temporal bone. This joint allows for movement of the jaw during actions like chewing and speaking. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the temporomandibular joint is not located near the hyoid bone (A), the vagus nerve (B), or the tragus of the ear (C). These structures are not directly associated with the temporomandibular joint's anatomical location and function.