ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A man comes to the clinic complaining that he is having difficulty obtaining an erection. When reviewing the patients history, what might the nurse note that contributes to erectile dysfunction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: The patient has a history of hypertension. Hypertension is a risk factor for erectile dysfunction as it can lead to reduced blood flow to the penis, impacting the ability to achieve and maintain an erection. High blood pressure can damage blood vessels and affect the circulation necessary for an erection. Other choices are less likely to directly contribute to erectile dysfunction. A: UTI treatment is not typically associated with erectile dysfunction. C: Age alone is not a direct cause of erectile dysfunction, although it can increase the risk. D: While a sedentary lifestyle can impact overall health, it is less likely to directly cause erectile dysfunction compared to hypertension.
Question 2 of 9
Which finding in the assessment of a patient following an abruption placenta could indicate a major complication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C - bleeding at IV insertion site. This finding could indicate a major complication following an abruption placenta, such as disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) or hypovolemic shock. Bleeding at the IV site suggests a systemic issue affecting the patient's coagulation status. Choices A, B, and D are not directly indicative of a major complication following an abruption placenta. Urine output, blood pressure, and respiratory rate are important parameters to monitor but do not specifically point to a major complication in this context.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse practitioner assesses the patient and diagnoses Gardnerella vaginalis. What would be the most appropriate nursing action at this time?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Advise the patient that this is an overgrowth of normal vaginal flora. This is correct because Gardnerella vaginalis is a bacteria associated with bacterial vaginosis, which is an overgrowth of normal vaginal flora. By advising the patient of this, the nurse practitioner can provide education on the condition and treatment options. B: Discussing the effect of this diagnosis on the patient's fertility is incorrect as Gardnerella vaginalis is not typically associated with fertility issues. C: Documenting the vaginal discharge as normal is incorrect as Gardnerella vaginalis is indicative of an abnormal vaginal flora imbalance. D: Administering acyclovir as ordered is incorrect as acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat herpes simplex virus infections, not bacterial vaginosis caused by Gardnerella vaginalis.
Question 4 of 9
A patient has just been diagnosed with prostate cancer and is scheduled for brachytherapy next week. The patient and his wife are unsure of having the procedure because their daughter is 3 months pregnant. What is the most appropriate teaching the nurse should provide to this family?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because brachytherapy does not pose a risk to the patient's daughter or her unborn child. Brachytherapy involves placing radioactive sources inside or near the tumor, which does not make the patient radioactive. The radiation does not travel far and does not pose a risk to others. Therefore, the daughter and her infant are safe from any radiation exposure. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because there is no need for the patient to avoid contact with the baby after delivery, the brachytherapy is not contraindicated for safety reasons, and there is no requirement for the patient to avoid close contact with his daughter for 2 months.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is assessing the patient’s meaning ofillness. Which area of focus by the nurse ispriority?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because understanding how a patient perceives and reacts to their illness is crucial for providing holistic care. By focusing on the patient's perspective, the nurse can address their emotional, mental, and social needs. Choice B is incorrect as it only considers biological aspects. Choice C is incorrect as it only focuses on psychological processes. Choice D is incorrect as it does not directly address the patient's perspective on illness. A holistic approach that considers the patient's meaning of illness is essential for providing patient-centered care.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is a member of an interdisciplinary teamthat uses critical pathways. According to the critical pathway, on day 2 of the hospital stay, the patient should be sitting in the chair. It is day 3, and the patient cannot sit in the chair. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Document the variance in the patient’s record. By documenting the variance in the patient's record, the nurse can provide a clear record of the deviation from the critical pathway. This documentation is essential for tracking the patient's progress accurately and identifying potential issues that may require intervention. It allows for proper communication among the interdisciplinary team and ensures that everyone is aware of the deviation. Choice A is incorrect because adding data to the problem list may not provide a comprehensive record of the variance. Choice B is incorrect because focusing on charting using the DAR format does not address the deviation from the critical pathway. Choice D is incorrect because reporting a positive variance in the next team meeting may not accurately reflect the patient's actual progress and may lead to miscommunication within the team.
Question 7 of 9
The patient is having lower abdominal surgeryand the nurse inserts an indwelling catheter. What is the rationale for the nurse’s action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because anesthetics used during surgery can decrease bladder contractility, leading to urinary retention. By inserting an indwelling catheter, the nurse ensures proper drainage of urine and prevents bladder distention. This helps to maintain the patient's comfort and prevent complications such as urinary retention and potential bladder injury. Choice A is incorrect because inserting a catheter is not primarily to prevent uncontrollable voiding during surgery. Choice B is incorrect as local trauma does not promote excessive urine incontinence necessitating catheterization. Choice D is incorrect because the primary purpose of catheter insertion is not to prevent interruption of the procedure by bathroom breaks.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who is scheduled for a cervical discectomy the following day. During health education, the patient should be made aware of what potential complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hematoma at the surgical site. This is a potential complication of cervical discectomy due to the risk of bleeding post-surgery. Hematoma can compress nearby structures and lead to increased pain and swelling. A: Vertebral fracture is not a typical complication of cervical discectomy, as the surgery aims to relieve pressure on the spinal cord caused by a herniated disc, not to cause fractures. C: Scoliosis is a condition characterized by abnormal lateral curvature of the spine, and it is not directly related to cervical discectomy. D: Renal trauma is not a common complication of cervical discectomy, as the surgery focuses on the cervical spine and does not involve the kidneys or renal system.
Question 9 of 9
A patient has been diagnosed with glaucoma and the nurse is preparing health education regarding the patients medication regimen. The patient states that she is eager to beat this disease and looks forward to the time that she will no longer require medication. How should the nurse best respond?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: In fact, glaucoma usually requires lifelong treatment with medications. 1. Glaucoma is a chronic condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure. 2. Lifelong treatment is usually necessary to manage intraocular pressure and prevent vision loss. 3. Stopping medication prematurely can lead to worsening of the condition. 4. Therefore, the nurse should educate the patient about the need for ongoing medication to manage glaucoma effectively. Summary: A: Incorrect. Having a positive attitude is beneficial, but it does not shorten the duration of glaucoma treatment. C: Incorrect. The target intraocular pressure is usually below 21 mm Hg, not 50 mm Hg. D: Incorrect. Glaucoma treatment is typically long-term, not limited to 6 months.