ATI RN
health assessment practice questions nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A male patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has come in for an examination and says,"I think that I have the mumps." The nurse would begin by examining the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: parotid gland. This is because mumps typically presents with swelling and tenderness of the parotid glands. The nurse should examine the parotid gland first to assess for these characteristic signs of mumps. Examining the thyroid gland (choice A) is not relevant to mumps. Cervical lymph nodes (choice C) may be swollen in various conditions but are not specific to mumps. Lastly, examining the mouth and skin for lesions (choice D) is not the initial priority when suspecting mumps.
Question 2 of 9
The mother of a 2-year-old is concerned because her son has had three ear infections in the past year. Which of the following would be an appropriate response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because it provides an accurate explanation for the frequent ear infections in the 2-year-old. The eustachian tube in children is indeed shorter and wider compared to adults, making it easier for infections to develop. This anatomical difference predisposes young children to ear infections. Choice A is incorrect because it falsely implies that frequent ear infections in small children are unusual only if something else is wrong. Choice B is incorrect as checking the immune system is not typically the first step in addressing recurrent ear infections. Choice C is incorrect as cerumen (earwax) does not directly contribute to ear infections in the middle ear.
Question 3 of 9
In assessing the sclera of a patient of African descent, which of the following would be an expected finding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because people of African descent commonly have a pigmented layer near the outer canthus of the lower lid called the "plica semilunaris." This is a normal anatomical variation in this population. Yellow fatty deposits over the cornea (choice A) are not typical findings in this demographic. Yellow color of the sclera extending up to the iris (choice C) is not a characteristic feature. The presence of small brown macules on the sclera (choice D) is also not a common finding in individuals of African descent.
Question 4 of 9
A 68-year-old woman is in the eye clinic for a checkup. She tells the nurse that she has been having trouble reading the paper, sewing, and even seeing the faces of her grandchildren. On examination, the nurse notes that she has some loss of central vision but her peripheral vision is normal. These findings suggest that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: she may have macular degeneration. Macular degeneration is characterized by loss of central vision while peripheral vision remains intact. In this case, the woman's difficulty with tasks that require central vision, such as reading and recognizing faces, points towards macular degeneration. The other choices are incorrect because: B: Her symptoms indicate a specific vision problem, not just age-related changes. C: Cataracts typically cause blurred vision, not loss of central vision. D: Glaucoma typically affects peripheral vision first before progressing to central vision loss.
Question 5 of 9
A mother brings her newborn in for an assessment and asks,"Is there something wrong with my baby? His head seems so big." Which of the following does the nurse know about the relative proportions of the head and trunk in the newborn?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: At birth, the head is one fifth the total length. This is because newborns have relatively larger heads compared to their body size. This is known as cephalocaudal growth, where development starts from the head and progresses down the body. The head being one-fifth of the total length is a normal proportion in newborns. Choice B is incorrect because at birth, the chest circumference is usually greater than the head circumference. Choice C is incorrect as the head size reaches about 80% of its final size by age 2, not 3 years old. Choice D is incorrect because the closure of the anterior fontanelle at 2 months does not necessarily mean the head will appear proportionate to the body; it continues to grow in proportion to the body size.
Question 6 of 9
A patient is unable to read the 20/100 line on the Snellen chart. The nurse would:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Referring the patient to an ophthalmologist or optometrist is the appropriate action because the patient's inability to read the 20/100 line on the Snellen chart suggests significant visual impairment that requires professional evaluation. Options B and C are incorrect as they do not address the underlying cause of the vision issue. Option B focuses on a different method of assessment and does not provide a solution for the patient's visual acuity problem. Option C assumes the patient's vision issue can be corrected by reading glasses, which may not be the case for a 20/100 visual acuity. Option D is also incorrect as it only adjusts the testing distance and does not address the need for a comprehensive evaluation by an eye care specialist.
Question 7 of 9
A 45-year-old farmer comes in for skin evaluation and complains of hair loss. He has noticed that the hair on his head seems to be breaking off in patches and that there is some scaling on his scalp. The nurse would begin the examination suspecting:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: tinea capitis. Tinea capitis is a fungal infection of the scalp that can cause hair loss, scaling, and breakage of hair. In this case, the patient's symptoms of hair loss, patchy hair breakage, and scaling on the scalp are consistent with tinea capitis. The nurse should suspect tinea capitis based on the presentation of these specific symptoms in the patient. Summary: - B: tinea corporis is a fungal infection of the skin, not the scalp, so it is not the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms. - C: toxic alopecia refers to hair loss due to exposure to toxins, which is unlikely in this case based on the symptoms described. - D: seborrheic dermatitis is a common skin condition that causes redness, scaly patches, and dandruff on the scalp, but it does not typically cause hair loss in the same way as tinea capitis
Question 8 of 9
During a physical education class, a student is hit in the eye with the end of a baseball bat. When examined in the emergency department, the nurse notes the presence of blood in the anterior chamber of the eye. This finding indicates the presence of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: hyphema. Hyphema is the presence of blood in the anterior chamber of the eye, which can occur due to trauma like being hit with a baseball bat. This indicates bleeding inside the eye, specifically in the space between the cornea and iris. Hypopyon (A) is the accumulation of white blood cells in the anterior chamber. Corneal abrasion (C) is a scratch on the cornea, not related to blood in the anterior chamber. Iritis (D) is inflammation of the iris, which does not necessarily involve blood in the anterior chamber.
Question 9 of 9
A male patient with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) has come in for an examination and says,"I think that I have the mumps." The nurse would begin by examining the:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: parotid gland. This is because mumps typically presents with swelling and tenderness of the parotid glands. The nurse should examine the parotid gland first to assess for these characteristic signs of mumps. Examining the thyroid gland (choice A) is not relevant to mumps. Cervical lymph nodes (choice C) may be swollen in various conditions but are not specific to mumps. Lastly, examining the mouth and skin for lesions (choice D) is not the initial priority when suspecting mumps.