A male patient presents at the free clinic with complaints of impotency. Upon physical examination, the nurse practitioner notes the presence of hypogonadism. What diagnosis should the nurse suspect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prolactinoma. Hypogonadism is often associated with decreased testosterone levels, which can be caused by excessive prolactin secretion from a prolactinoma. Prolactin inhibits the secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), leading to decreased production of testosterone. Angioma, glioma, and ACTH-producing adenoma are not typically associated with hypogonadism. Angiomas are benign tumors of blood vessels, gliomas are tumors of the brain or spinal cord, and ACTH-producing adenomas are associated with Cushing's disease, not hypogonadism.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prepare an advance directive. This allows the patient to document their healthcare preferences in advance, ensuring their wishes are known and honored as the disease progresses. It provides clear instructions for healthcare providers and family members, reducing potential conflicts and ensuring the patient's autonomy is respected. Choice B is incorrect as designating an MRP focuses on medical decision-making but may not capture the full range of the patient's care preferences. Choice C involves collaboration with an organization, which may not fully represent the patient's individual wishes. Choice D is incorrect as witnesses are not always necessary for providing instructions, and the presence of witnesses does not guarantee that the patient's wishes will be followed accurately.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Glucosuria. Preeclampsia is characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema. Glucosuria is not a typical symptom of preeclampsia. Glucosuria is more commonly associated with gestational diabetes, which is a separate condition from preeclampsia. Therefore, in a pregnant patient at risk for preeclampsia, the presence of glucosuria would not be indicative of preeclampsia. The other choices, edema, proteinuria, and hypertension, are all common clinical signs seen in patients with preeclampsia.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, marginal. Placenta previa is classified based on the proximity of the placental edge to the internal os. In a marginal placenta previa, the placental edge just reaches the internal os. This is a crucial distinction as it poses a higher risk for bleeding during labor. Total placenta previa covers the entire internal os, partial placenta previa partially covers the internal os, and low-lying placenta is when the placenta is close to but not covering the internal os. Therefore, D is correct as it accurately describes the specific position of the placenta edge in relation to the internal os in cases of marginal placenta previa.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Recurrent pelvic infections. Pelvic infections can lead to scarring and blockage of the fallopian tubes, increasing the risk of ectopic pregnancy. Ovarian cysts and oral contraceptives are not directly linked to ectopic pregnancies. Heavy menstrual flow does not inherently increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy.