A male patient is receiving testosterone therapy for hypogonadism. What adverse effect should the nurse monitor for during this therapy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of cardiovascular events. Testosterone therapy for hypogonadism is associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular events, such as myocardial infarction and stroke. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of cardiovascular issues is crucial during testosterone therapy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testosterone therapy is not typically associated with an increased risk of liver dysfunction, prostate cancer, or bone fractures.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a patient with cryptococcosis and HIV, neurological assessment should be prioritized because cryptococcosis commonly affects the central nervous system, leading to symptoms such as headache, confusion, and altered mental status. This assessment is crucial in monitoring for any neurological complications and guiding appropriate interventions. Functional assessment focuses on the patient's ability to perform activities of daily living and is not directly associated with cryptococcosis. Nutritional assessment is important for overall health but is not the priority when assessing for cryptococcosis. Cardiac assessment is not a priority in cryptococcosis as the primary manifestations are related to the central nervous system.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The Golgi tendon reflex is the correct answer. This reflex protects the muscle and tendons from excessive force by causing the muscle to relax. In this scenario, the downward pressure applied just above the elbow joint triggers the Golgi tendon reflex, resulting in the attacker's collapse. The other options are incorrect: - The myotatic reflex (also known as the stretch reflex) is responsible for contracting a muscle in response to its stretch, not relaxing it. - The withdrawal reflex is a spinal reflex that moves a body part away from a painful stimulus, not directly related to the scenario described. - The crossed-extensor reflex is a reflex that occurs on the opposite side of the body in response to a withdrawal reflex, which is not the case in this situation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Active tuberculosis. Given the patient's history of homelessness and initiation of isoniazid (INH) treatment, the most likely diagnosis is active tuberculosis. Isoniazid is a first-line medication used in the treatment of active tuberculosis. Latent tuberculosis (choice B) would not typically necessitate treatment with isoniazid alone. Mycobacterium avium complex (choice C) is not typically treated with isoniazid alone. Human immunodeficiency virus (choice D) is a risk factor for developing tuberculosis but is not the primary diagnosis in this patient scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hormonal contraceptives increase blood levels of clotting factors, particularly factors II, VII, IX, and X. This elevation in clotting factors can predispose individuals to thromboembolic events, including blood clots. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because hormonal contraceptives do not have a significant effect on serum triglycerides and cholesterol, platelet levels, or causing direct injury to blood vessel linings as the primary mechanism for clot formation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Hyperreflexia, or exaggerated reflexes, is a common sign of an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion. An UMN lesion indicates damage to the central nervous system pathways that control movement. Hypotonia (choice A) refers to reduced muscle tone, which is more indicative of lower motor neuron lesions. Muscle atrophy (choice C) suggests long-standing denervation or disuse of muscles. Fasciculations (choice D) are involuntary muscle contractions that can be seen in lower motor neuron lesions, like in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), rather than UMN lesions.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased number of infections. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is a medication used to stimulate the production of white blood cells, specifically granulocytes, in the body. By increasing the number of white blood cells, G-CSF helps in boosting the immune system, leading to a decreased number of infections. Choice A is incorrect as G-CSF does not cause a reduction in red blood cell count. Choice C is incorrect as G-CSF primarily affects white blood cells and is not directly related to fatigue or energy levels. Choice D is incorrect as G-CSF does increase the white blood cell count but does not usually elevate it to 20,000 mm3.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is IgM. IgM is the first immunoglobulin to appear in response to a new antigen. It is produced initially during the primary immune response. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas and secretions. IgG is produced in a secondary immune response and is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the bloodstream. IgE is involved in allergic reactions and parasitic infections, not the initial response to a new antigen.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide is to avoid taking nitrates while on sildenafil (Viagra). Combining sildenafil with nitrates can result in severe hypotension due to additive vasodilatory effects. Choice A is incorrect because sildenafil can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take sildenafil at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as taking sildenafil with milk has not been shown to enhance its absorption.