ATI RN
Maternal Disorders Questions
Question 1 of 5
A male client reports painful urination and a creamy yellow drainage from the urethra. During the assessment, he admits to having unprotected sex. With which STI does the nurse associate these clinical manifestations?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Gonorrhea. Painful urination and yellow discharge from the urethra are classic symptoms of gonorrhea, a bacterial sexually transmitted infection (STI). Gonorrhea is commonly transmitted through unprotected sexual contact. The creamy yellow discharge is a key indicator of gonorrhea infection. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Candidiasis typically presents with white, cottage cheese-like discharge and itching, not yellow discharge or painful urination. B: HPV does not cause painful urination or discharge from the urethra; it usually presents with genital warts or abnormal pap smears. C: Trichomoniasis may cause green, frothy discharge and discomfort, but not creamy yellow discharge or painful urination.
Question 2 of 5
During the physical assessment of a female client with HPV, which should the nurse expect to find?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Condylomata. HPV can manifest as genital warts or condylomata acuminata. These are flesh-colored growths that appear on the genital area. The presence of condylomata indicates an active HPV infection. Choices A and C are incorrect as purulent or malodorous discharge is not typically associated with HPV. Choice D is incorrect as HPV often presents with visible symptoms like condylomata.
Question 3 of 5
A 20-year-old college student expresses concern over the recent appearance of genital warts, an assessment finding her primary care provider confirms as attributable to HPV infection. Which client education should be included?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: There is a chance that the genital warts will clear up on their own without any treatment. Rationale: 1. Genital warts caused by HPV can sometimes resolve spontaneously without treatment. 2. This option emphasizes the possibility of self-resolution, which is a common occurrence. 3. Encouraging observation without immediate treatment aligns with current guidelines for managing HPV-related genital warts. 4. Avoiding unnecessary treatment helps prevent potential side effects and reduces healthcare costs. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A: Incorrect because immediate treatment is not always necessary for genital warts caused by HPV. C: Incorrect because HPV vaccination does not treat existing HPV infections, including genital warts. D: Incorrect because developing pelvic inflammatory disease is not directly related to the presence of genital warts caused by HPV.
Question 4 of 5
A pregnant woman at 30 weeks gestation discovers she is HPV positive at her prenatal visit. Upon examination, her provider detects genital warts. Which treatment is not recommended in this case?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Podophyllin. It is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential teratogenic effects. Carbon dioxide laser surgery, electrocautery, and surgical excision can be considered safer options for treating genital warts during pregnancy. Podophyllin should be avoided to prevent harm to the developing fetus.
Question 5 of 5
A client comes to an outpatient clinic for evaluation. What in the client's blood sample reveals that administration of the hepatitis B vaccine has been effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: anti-HBs. This antibody indicates successful immunity after hepatitis B vaccination. It is produced in response to the vaccine and signifies protection against the virus. Choice A, HBsAg, is present in acute infection. Choices C and D, anti-HBc IgM and anti-HBc, indicate acute or chronic infection, not vaccine response.