A male client is suspected of an immune system disorder. Which of the ff important factors will the nurse document while assessing the client?

Questions 75

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ADPIE Nursing Process Questions Questions

Question 1 of 9

A male client is suspected of an immune system disorder. Which of the ff important factors will the nurse document while assessing the client?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: The client's ability to produce antibodies. This is crucial in assessing immune system disorders as antibodies play a key role in fighting infections and other foreign invaders. By evaluating the client's ability to produce antibodies, the nurse can determine if the immune system is functioning properly. A: The client's diet is not directly related to immune system disorders unless there are specific deficiencies impacting immune function. B: The client's family member's history of chronic diseases may provide some genetic predisposition information but does not directly assess the client's immune system. C: The client's drug history is important but more relevant to medication interactions and side effects rather than evaluating the immune system.

Question 2 of 9

The most effective pharmacologic agent for the treatment of Parkinson’s disease is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levodopa. Levodopa is the most effective pharmacologic agent for treating Parkinson's disease because it is converted to dopamine in the brain, replenishing the deficient dopamine levels in Parkinson's patients. Selegiline and Symmetrel are also used in treating Parkinson's, but they are typically used as adjunctive therapy rather than the primary treatment. Permax has been withdrawn from the market due to safety concerns, making it an incorrect choice.

Question 3 of 9

Nursing assessment for a patient with metabolic alkalosis includes evaluation of laboratory data for all of the following except:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypoglycemia. In metabolic alkalosis, the blood pH is elevated due to an excess of bicarbonate. Hypoglycemia is not directly related to metabolic alkalosis but can be seen in other conditions like diabetes or fasting. Evaluating for hypocalcemia (A) is important as alkalosis can lead to decreased ionized calcium levels. Hypokalemia (B) is common in metabolic alkalosis due to potassium loss. Hypoxemia (D) is not directly related to metabolic alkalosis but can occur in severe cases due to respiratory compensation. Therefore, hypoglycemia is the least relevant in assessing metabolic alkalosis.

Question 4 of 9

Which of the following types of cells is the immune system’s shutoff mechanism?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suppressor T cells. Suppressor T cells regulate the immune response by inhibiting the activity of other immune cells to prevent overreaction and maintain immune balance. They play a crucial role in preventing autoimmune diseases and excessive inflammation. Plasma cells (A) produce antibodies, Helper T cells (C) assist in activating other immune cells, and B lymphocytes (D) are involved in antibody production. Suppressor T cells specifically have the function of shutting down immune responses, making them the immune system’s shutoff mechanism.

Question 5 of 9

A 61-year old female patient with diabetes is in the emergency department after stepping on a sharp onject while walking barefoot on the beach. The patient did not notice that the object pierced the skin unitl later that evening. What problem does she probably have?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: neuropathy on her peripheral. In diabetes, peripheral neuropathy is common, causing loss of sensation in the feet, making it difficult to feel injuries like stepping on a sharp object. This can lead to delayed detection of wounds, increasing the risk of infections and complications. Nephropathy (B) refers to kidney damage, carpal tunnel syndrome (C) involves compression of the median nerve in the wrist, and macroangiopathy (D) refers to large blood vessel disease, which are not directly related to the scenario described.

Question 6 of 9

After reviewing the database, the nurse discovers that the patient’s vital signs have not been recorded by the nursing assistive personnel (NAP). Which clinical decision should the nurse make? Administer scheduled medications assuming that the NAP would have reported

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse should ask the NAP to record the patient's vital signs before administering medications. This is important for ensuring patient safety and monitoring any potential changes in the patient's condition. By having the NAP record the vital signs, the nurse can assess the patient's current status and make informed decisions regarding medication administration. Option A is incorrect because administering medications without knowing the patient's vital signs, especially if they are abnormal, can be risky. Option B is not the best choice as it delays addressing the missing vital signs. Option D is incorrect as omitting vital signs assessment is not in line with best practices for patient care.

Question 7 of 9

Which patient is most at risk for fluid volume overload?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the 35-year-old with kidney failure. Patients with kidney failure are at high risk for fluid volume overload due to the kidneys' inability to properly regulate fluid balance. This can lead to accumulation of excess fluids in the body, causing edema, hypertension, and heart failure. In contrast, choices A, B, and D are not at as high risk for fluid volume overload as patients with kidney failure, as their conditions do not directly impact fluid regulation in the body.

Question 8 of 9

Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is ordered for an adult client. Which nutrient is not likely to be in the solution?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: trace minerals. TPN solutions typically include dextrose for energy, electrolytes for maintaining fluid balance, and amino acids for protein synthesis. Trace minerals are not typically included in TPN solutions as they are only required in small amounts and can be toxic in excess. Therefore, it is not likely to be in the solution. The other choices (A, B, D) are essential components of TPN solutions necessary for meeting the nutritional needs of the patient.

Question 9 of 9

A clinical nurse specialist (CNS) is orienting a new graduate registered nurse to an oncology unit where blood product transfusions are frequently administered. In discussing ABO compatibility, the CNS presents several hypothetical scenarios. A well-informed new graduate would know the greatest likelihood of an acute hemolytic reaction would occur when giving:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A-positive blood to an A-negative client. This is because in ABO blood typing, individuals with blood type A have anti-B antibodies in their plasma. Therefore, if A-positive blood (which contains the A antigen) is given to an A-negative client (who has anti-A antibodies), there is a high risk of an acute hemolytic reaction due to the antibodies attacking the transfused blood cells. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve a mismatch of ABO blood types that would lead to a significant risk of acute hemolytic reaction. In choice B, O-positive blood can be safely transfused to an A-positive client as O blood is considered the universal donor. In choice C, O-negative blood can be safely given to an O-positive client as O-negative blood is compatible with all blood types. In choice D, B-positive blood can be safely administered to an AB-positive client as the AB blood type can receive both

Access More Questions!

ATI RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

ATI RN Premium


$150/ 90 days