ATI RN
ADPIE Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A male client is suspected of an immune system disorder. Which of the ff important factors will the nurse document while assessing the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: The client's ability to produce antibodies. This is crucial in assessing immune system disorders as antibodies play a key role in fighting infections and other foreign invaders. By evaluating the client's ability to produce antibodies, the nurse can determine if the immune system is functioning properly. A: The client's diet is not directly related to immune system disorders unless there are specific deficiencies impacting immune function. B: The client's family member's history of chronic diseases may provide some genetic predisposition information but does not directly assess the client's immune system. C: The client's drug history is important but more relevant to medication interactions and side effects rather than evaluating the immune system.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is teaching a new nurse about protocols. Which information from the new nurse indicates a correct understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because protocols are indeed guidelines that assist clinicians in decision-making and choosing interventions for specific health care problems. This definition accurately reflects the purpose and function of protocols in nursing practice. Option B is incorrect as it describes protocols as policies related to nurses' duties and standards of care, which is more aligned with job descriptions and policies rather than protocols. Option C is incorrect as it relates protocols to a code of ethics, which is a separate concept that guides ethical decision-making and behavior in nursing practice. Option D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes protocols as prescriptive order forms, which are actually separate from protocols and are used for medication administration and treatment orders.
Question 3 of 9
Nursing assessment for a patient with metabolic alkalosis includes evaluation of laboratory data for all of the following except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypoglycemia. In metabolic alkalosis, the blood pH is elevated due to an excess of bicarbonate. Hypoglycemia is not directly related to metabolic alkalosis but can be seen in other conditions like diabetes or fasting. Evaluating for hypocalcemia (A) is important as alkalosis can lead to decreased ionized calcium levels. Hypokalemia (B) is common in metabolic alkalosis due to potassium loss. Hypoxemia (D) is not directly related to metabolic alkalosis but can occur in severe cases due to respiratory compensation. Therefore, hypoglycemia is the least relevant in assessing metabolic alkalosis.
Question 4 of 9
The following are warning signs of cancer. Which one is not?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, weight gain, as it is not typically considered a warning sign of cancer. Changes in bladder and bowel habits (A), indigestion or difficulty in swallowing (C), and a nagging cough or hoarseness (D) are commonly associated with various types of cancer. Weight gain is more commonly linked to factors such as diet, exercise, and hormonal imbalances rather than cancer. It is important to be vigilant about the other warning signs and seek medical attention if any of those symptoms persist.
Question 5 of 9
Which part of the brain controls breathing?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medulla. The medulla is located in the brainstem and plays a crucial role in controlling involuntary functions like breathing. It contains the respiratory center, which regulates the rate and depth of breathing. The medulla sends signals to the diaphragm and intercostal muscles to control breathing. The cerebrum (B) is responsible for higher brain functions, not breathing control. The cerebellum (C) coordinates movement and balance, not breathing. The thalamus (D) relays sensory information to the cerebral cortex, not involved in breathing regulation.
Question 6 of 9
Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) is ordered for an adult client. Which nutrient is not likely to be in the solution?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: trace minerals. TPN solutions typically include dextrose for energy, electrolytes for maintaining fluid balance, and amino acids for protein synthesis. Trace minerals are not typically included in TPN solutions as they are only required in small amounts and can be toxic in excess. Therefore, it is not likely to be in the solution. The other choices (A, B, D) are essential components of TPN solutions necessary for meeting the nutritional needs of the patient.
Question 7 of 9
A patient’s plan of care includes the goal of increasing mobility this shift. As the patient is ambulating to the bathroom at the beginning of the shift, the patient suffers a fall. Which initial action will the nurse take next to revise the plan of care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct initial action to take after the patient falls is to assess the patient (Choice D). This is important to determine the extent of any injuries sustained, assess the patient's current condition, and identify any factors that may have contributed to the fall. By conducting a thorough assessment, the nurse can gather crucial information to inform the revision of the care plan. Consulting physical therapy (Choice A) may be necessary later on but is not the immediate priority. Establishing a new plan of care (Choice B) and setting new priorities (Choice C) should be based on the assessment findings, making Choice D the most appropriate initial action.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse conducts an assessment and notes that the client has abnormal breath sounds, a productive cough, and cyanotic lips. How should the nurse categorize these findings?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Objective data. Abnormal breath sounds, a productive cough, and cyanotic lips are all observable and measurable findings that can be verified by the nurse through assessment. Objective data refers to information that can be observed or measured, providing concrete evidence of the client's condition. In this case, the nurse directly perceives these physical signs during the assessment, making them objective data. Summary: - A: Subjective data involves the client's feelings or opinions, which are not directly observable by the nurse. - C: Secondary data are information obtained from other sources, not directly from the client. - D: Primary data are firsthand information collected directly from the client, but in this scenario, the findings are observable physical signs, making them objective data.
Question 9 of 9
During chemotherapy for lymphocytic leukemia, a client develops abdominal pain, fever, and “horse barn” smelling diarrhea. It would be most important for the nurse to advise the physician to order:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stool for Clostridium difficile test. In this scenario, the client is experiencing symptoms suggestive of a possible Clostridium difficile infection, a common complication of chemotherapy. The test is crucial to confirm the presence of C. difficile toxins in the stool, which would guide appropriate treatment with antibiotics such as metronidazole or vancomycin. A: Enzyme-linked immunosuppressant assay is not relevant in this context as it is used to measure levels of immunosuppressant drugs, not for diagnosing C. difficile infection. C: Flat palate X-ray of the abdomen is unnecessary and would not provide information about the cause of the symptoms. D: Electrolyte panel and hemogram are important for monitoring overall health status but do not directly address the specific issue of possible C. difficile infection.