ATI RN
Multiple Choice Questions on Psychiatric Emergencies Questions
Question 1 of 5
A male client comes to the emergency center because he has an erection that will not resolve. The client reports that he is taking trazodone (Desyrel) for insomnia. Which information is most important for the nurse to ask the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: Trazodone can cause priapism, a prolonged painful erection unrelated to sexual stimulation. Asking if the client has taken any medications for erectile dysfunction will help differentiate between priapism due to trazodone and other causes of priapism. This is crucial for appropriate treatment and management. Incorrect Choices: A: Asking about alcohol consumption is important in some situations but not the priority in this case as trazodone is the likely cause of priapism. C: While important to assess overall sexual health, it is not the most immediate concern when the client presents with priapism related to trazodone. D: This choice is incomplete and does not provide any relevant information related to the client's condition.
Question 2 of 5
The RN is working with a male client at a community mental health center when the client reports hearing voices that tell him to get a knife from the kitchen and hurt himself. What intervention is most important for the RN to implement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Don't allow the client to go into the kitchen until the hallucination has subsided. This intervention is crucial to ensure the client's safety as it helps prevent harm to himself or others. Allowing the client access to a potential weapon during a hallucination could result in serious injury. By restricting access to the kitchen, the RN can mitigate the risk and provide a safe environment for the client. Summary of other choices: B: Reporting to the client's case workers may be important, but the immediate safety of the client takes precedence. C: Assigning the UAP is not sufficient to address the safety issue at hand, as direct intervention by the RN is needed. D: While documenting the behavior is important, immediate action to prevent harm is more critical in this situation.
Question 3 of 5
A male client tells the RN that he does not want to take the atypical antipsychotic drug, olanzapine (Zyprexa), because of the side effects he experienced when he took the drug for a year. Which experience is most likely related to taking olanzapine?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain of 75 lbs. Olanzapine is known to cause significant weight gain as a common side effect. This is due to its impact on appetite control and metabolic processes. Other choices are less likely to be directly related to olanzapine. B, thoughts of wanting to hurt himself, is a serious side effect of olanzapine but not as common as weight gain. C, frequent days with diarrhea, is not a typical side effect of olanzapine. D, altered liver function tests, is a possible side effect of olanzapine but weight gain is more commonly associated with it.
Question 4 of 5
A young adult female client is admitted to a psychiatric facility with a medical diagnosis of bulimia nervosa. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Assess and report the client's electrolyte status to the healthcare provider. This is the highest priority because electrolyte imbalances are common in clients with bulimia nervosa due to purging behaviors. Monitoring electrolytes is crucial to prevent life-threatening complications. A: Scheduling group therapy may be beneficial, but addressing the physical health concern is the priority. B: Assigning care based on age is not essential in this situation. C: Monitoring for binging activities is important but not as critical as assessing electrolyte status. In summary, ensuring the client's physical health and safety by monitoring electrolyte status is the top priority in managing a client with bulimia nervosa.
Question 5 of 5
When do antidepressants start working?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (2 to 4 weeks) because antidepressants typically take around 2 to 4 weeks to start showing noticeable effects. Initially, the medication needs time to build up in the system and adjust serotonin levels in the brain. It takes a few weeks for the neurotransmitter balance to stabilize and for the individual to experience improvements in mood and symptoms. Choice A (1 to 2 weeks) is too soon for significant effects to occur. Choice C (4 to 6 weeks) and D (6 to 8 weeks) are too long for the typical onset of action for most antidepressants.