ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
A male client, age 45, undergoes a lumbar puncture in which CSF was extracted for a particular neurologic diagnostic procedure. After the procedure, he complains of dizziness and a slight headache. Which of the ff steps must the nurse take to provide comfort to the client? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Position the client flat for at least 3 hrs or as directed by the physician. Rationale: 1. Positioning the client flat helps prevent post-lumbar puncture headache by allowing the CSF to replenish and stabilize the pressure in the spinal canal. 2. The recommended time frame of 3 hours allows for adequate CSF reabsorption and reduces the likelihood of headache. 3. Following physician's direction is crucial to individualize care based on the specific situation. Summary of other choices: B: Encouraging fluid intake is generally good practice but may not directly alleviate post-lumbar puncture headache. C: Keeping the room well lit and playing soothing music may not address the physiological cause of the client's symptoms. D: Ambulation and leg exercises are not recommended immediately post-lumbar puncture as they may exacerbate dizziness and headache.
Question 2 of 9
A 23 y.o. woman is seen at an outpatient clinic for a routine Pap smear. When questioned, she states she is deciding whether to engage in sexual activity with a man she is just getting to know. She asks how she can tell if he has an STD. Which response by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Step 1: The correct answer is D because it emphasizes the importance of medical examination and diagnostic testing to determine if the man has an STD. Step 2: Visual inspection (choice B) is not reliable as some STDs may not present with visible symptoms. Step 3: Relying solely on appearance and condom use (choices A and C) does not guarantee protection against all STDs. Step 4: Choice D is the best option as it advocates for seeking professional medical advice for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
Question 3 of 9
A client receiving chemotherapy has a nursing diagnosis of Deficient diversional activity related to decreased energy. Which statement indicates an accurate understanding of appropriate ways to deal with this deficit?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because bowling with the team after discharge promotes social interaction and physical activity, addressing both the diversional activity deficit and the decreased energy. Playing card games (A) may not involve physical activity. Taking a long trip (B) may be overwhelming and tiring. Eating in a restaurant daily (D) does not address the need for meaningful activities or social interaction.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse should expect Mr. Gabatan to have some spasticity of the lower extremities. To prevent the development of contractures, careful consideration must be given to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Proper positioning. Proper positioning helps maintain joint alignment, prevents pressure ulcers, and reduces the risk of contractures by keeping the muscles in a neutral position. This is crucial in preventing complications associated with spasticity. A: Active exercise may exacerbate spasticity and lead to muscle fatigue, increasing the risk of contractures. B: Use of tilt board may not directly address the need for proper positioning to prevent contractures. C: Deep massage may provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue of maintaining proper positioning to prevent contractures.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is conducting a nursing health history. Which component will the nurse address?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Patient expectations. In a nursing health history, the nurse focuses on understanding the patient's expectations, needs, and preferences to provide patient-centered care. This step is essential for building rapport, establishing trust, and tailoring care plans to meet the patient's individual needs. Incorrect choices: A: Nurse’s concerns - This is not the primary focus during a nursing health history. The nurse should prioritize understanding the patient's perspective. C: Current treatment orders - While important, this is typically addressed during the assessment phase, not specifically in the nursing health history. D: Nurse’s goals for the patient - The nurse's goals should align with the patient's goals, making understanding the patient's expectations crucial.
Question 6 of 9
What dietary advice should the nurse give to clients with HIV/AIDS?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decrease the intake of trace elements and antioxidant supplements. Clients with HIV/AIDS do not require additional trace elements and antioxidant supplements, as excessive intake can be harmful. HIV/AIDS already places stress on the immune system, so taking excessive supplements may lead to toxicity. It is important to focus on a balanced diet rich in essential nutrients rather than overloading the body with unnecessary supplements. Encouraging a healthy, balanced diet will help support overall health and immune function in clients with HIV/AIDS. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because encouraging excessive intake of fat-soluble vitamins, water-soluble vitamins, iron, and zinc can also lead to potential adverse effects. It is important to focus on meeting the recommended daily allowances for these nutrients rather than exceeding them.
Question 7 of 9
One of the dangers of treating hypernatremia is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cerebral edema. Hypernatremia is an elevated sodium level in the blood, which can lead to osmotic shifts causing water to move out of cells, including brain cells. This can result in cerebral edema, potentially leading to neurological complications. Incorrect choices: A: Red blood cell crenation - This occurs in hypertonic solutions, not hypernatremia. C: Red blood cell hydrolysis - Hypernatremia doesn't directly cause red blood cell hydrolysis. D: Renal shutdown - Hypernatremia can stress the kidneys, but it doesn't typically lead to renal shutdown.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse adds the following diagnosis to a patient’s care plan: Constipation related to decreased gastrointestinal motility secondary to pain medication administration as evidenced by the patient reporting no bowel movement in seven days, abdominal distention, and abdominal pain. Which element did the nurse write as the defining characteristic?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased gastrointestinal motility. This is the defining characteristic because it directly links the cause (pain medication administration) to the effect (constipation). The patient's lack of bowel movement, abdominal distention, and pain are all consequences of decreased gastrointestinal motility. Pain medication slows down the movement of the intestines, leading to constipation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while they are related to the patient's condition, they are not the defining characteristic that connects the cause to the effect in this specific scenario.
Question 9 of 9
During the initial assessment, he is placed in a modified Trendelenburg position. What desired effect should the position have on the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The modified Trendelenburg position involves placing the client with their legs elevated higher than their head. This position promotes venous return to the heart, increasing preload and cardiac output, thereby leading to an increase in blood pressure. Elevating the legs helps to reduce peripheral edema and improve circulation. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B is incorrect because the Trendelenburg position does not directly affect the respiratory rate. Choice C is incorrect as the position is not intended to increase heart rate but rather improve venous return. Choice D is also incorrect as the primary goal of the Trendelenburg position is not to decrease blood loss, although it may help in some cases by improving circulation.