Questions 9

ATI RN

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Nursing Process Questions and Answers PDF Questions

Question 1 of 5

A male client, age 45, undergoes a lumbar puncture in which CSF was extracted for a particular neurologic diagnostic procedure. After the procedure, he complains of dizziness and a slight headache. Which of the ff steps must the nurse take to provide comfort to the client? Choose all that apply

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Position the client flat for at least 3 hrs or as directed by the physician. Rationale: 1. Positioning the client flat helps prevent post-lumbar puncture headache by allowing the CSF to replenish and stabilize the pressure in the spinal canal. 2. The recommended time frame of 3 hours allows for adequate CSF reabsorption and reduces the likelihood of headache. 3. Following physician's direction is crucial to individualize care based on the specific situation. Summary of other choices: B: Encouraging fluid intake is generally good practice but may not directly alleviate post-lumbar puncture headache. C: Keeping the room well lit and playing soothing music may not address the physiological cause of the client's symptoms. D: Ambulation and leg exercises are not recommended immediately post-lumbar puncture as they may exacerbate dizziness and headache.

Question 2 of 5

During the initial assessment, he is placed in a modified Trendelenburg position. What desired effect should the position have on the client?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The modified Trendelenburg position involves placing the client with their legs elevated higher than their head. This position promotes venous return to the heart, increasing preload and cardiac output, thereby leading to an increase in blood pressure. Elevating the legs helps to reduce peripheral edema and improve circulation. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B is incorrect because the Trendelenburg position does not directly affect the respiratory rate. Choice C is incorrect as the position is not intended to increase heart rate but rather improve venous return. Choice D is also incorrect as the primary goal of the Trendelenburg position is not to decrease blood loss, although it may help in some cases by improving circulation.

Question 3 of 5

What would be the most appropriate intervention for a patient with aphasia who state, "I want a ..." and then stops?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Waiting for the patient to complete the sentence is the most appropriate intervention as it allows the patient time to formulate their thoughts and express themselves. It shows patience and respect for the patient's communication process. B: Immediately showing objects may overwhelm the patient and not allow them to express their thoughts fully. C: Leaving the room would not address the patient's communication difficulty and could make them feel abandoned or misunderstood. D: Naming objects for the patient assumes what they are trying to say and may not accurately represent their intended message.

Question 4 of 5

A 62-year old client diagnosed with pyelonephritis and possible septicemia has had five urinary tract infections over the past 2 years. She’s fatigued from lack of sleep; urinates frequently, even during the night, and has lost weight recently. Tests reveal the following: sodium level 152mEq/L, osmolarity 340mOsm/L, glucose level 125mg/dl, and potassium level of 3.8mEq/L. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate for this client?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client is C: Deficient fluid volume related to osmotic diuresis induced by hypernatremia. The client's elevated sodium level of 152mEq/L indicates hypernatremia, which leads to osmotic diuresis and subsequent fluid loss. This results in deficient fluid volume, causing the client to urinate frequently and experience fatigue from lack of sleep. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Deficient fluid volume related to inability to conserve water is not the most appropriate diagnosis as the primary issue is the osmotic diuresis induced by hypernatremia, not the client's inability to conserve water. B: Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to hypermetabolic state is not the most appropriate diagnosis as the client's weight loss is likely due to fluid loss from osmotic diuresis, not a hypermetabolic state. D: Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements related to catab

Question 5 of 5

If a patient has elevated pulmonary vascular pressures, the nurse understands that the patient is most likely to develop which of the ff. physiological cardiac changes?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Right ventricular hypertrophy. Elevated pulmonary vascular pressures lead to increased resistance in the pulmonary circulation, causing the right ventricle to work harder to pump blood to the lungs. Over time, this can result in hypertrophy of the right ventricle as it adapts to the increased workload. Left atrial atrophy (A) and right atrial atrophy (C) are unlikely as the atria are not directly affected by elevated pulmonary pressures. Left ventricular hypertrophy (B) is not the correct choice as it typically occurs in response to systemic hypertension, not pulmonary hypertension.

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