ATI RN
Nursing Process Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
A male client, age 45, undergoes a lumbar puncture in which CSF was extracted for a particular neurologic diagnostic procedure. After the procedure, he complains of dizziness and a slight headache. Which of the ff steps must the nurse take to provide comfort to the client? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Position the client flat for at least 3 hrs or as directed by the physician. Rationale: 1. Positioning the client flat helps prevent post-lumbar puncture headache by allowing the CSF to replenish and stabilize the pressure in the spinal canal. 2. The recommended time frame of 3 hours allows for adequate CSF reabsorption and reduces the likelihood of headache. 3. Following physician's direction is crucial to individualize care based on the specific situation. Summary of other choices: B: Encouraging fluid intake is generally good practice but may not directly alleviate post-lumbar puncture headache. C: Keeping the room well lit and playing soothing music may not address the physiological cause of the client's symptoms. D: Ambulation and leg exercises are not recommended immediately post-lumbar puncture as they may exacerbate dizziness and headache.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the ff. interventions can help minimize complications related to Hypercalcemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice A is correct: 1. Hypercalcemia can lead to dehydration due to increased urine output. 2. Encouraging 3 to 4 L of fluid daily helps prevent dehydration and promote renal excretion of excess calcium. 3. Adequate hydration reduces the risk of kidney stones and other complications associated with hypercalcemia. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: - Choice B (bed rest) does not directly address hypercalcemia complications. - Choice C (cough and deep breathe) is unrelated to managing hypercalcemia. - Choice D (apply heat to painful areas) does not address the underlying cause of hypercalcemia or its complications.
Question 3 of 9
What would be the most appropriate intervention for a patient with aphasia who state, "I want a ..." and then stops?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Waiting for the patient to complete the sentence is the most appropriate intervention as it allows the patient time to formulate their thoughts and express themselves. It shows patience and respect for the patient's communication process. B: Immediately showing objects may overwhelm the patient and not allow them to express their thoughts fully. C: Leaving the room would not address the patient's communication difficulty and could make them feel abandoned or misunderstood. D: Naming objects for the patient assumes what they are trying to say and may not accurately represent their intended message.
Question 4 of 9
When caring for a client with diabetes insipidus, the nurse expects to administer:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Vasopressin (Pitressin Synthetic). In diabetes insipidus, there is a deficiency of ADH (antidiuretic hormone), leading to excessive urination and thirst. Vasopressin is a synthetic form of ADH that helps retain water by reducing urine output. Administering vasopressin helps manage the symptoms of diabetes insipidus. B: Regular insulin is used to manage diabetes mellitus, not diabetes insipidus. C: Furosemide is a diuretic used to increase urine output, which would worsen the symptoms of diabetes insipidus. D: 10% dextrose is a form of glucose and is not indicated in the treatment of diabetes insipidus.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the ff. problems during the immediate postoperative course ff. lumbar microdiskectomy should be reported to the physician immediately?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the inability to move the affected leg post lumbar microdiskectomy could indicate a serious complication like nerve damage or blood clot. This would require immediate medical attention to prevent further complications. Incisional pain (A) is common and can be managed with pain medication. A two-inch area of bleeding on the dressing (C) is concerning but can be managed with proper wound care unless it is excessive. Muscle spasm (D) is also common postoperatively and can be managed with medications or physical therapy.
Question 6 of 9
A client receiving ferrous sulfate (Fer-Iron) therapy to treat an iron deficiency reports taking an antacid frequently to relieve heart burn. Which nursing instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Take ferrous sulfate and the antacid at least 2 hours apart." Rationale: 1. Iron absorption is decreased in the presence of antacids due to decreased gastric acidity. 2. Antacids can bind to iron and reduce its absorption. 3. Taking them 2 hours apart allows for optimal iron absorption without interference from the antacid. 4. Taking them together (choice A) would decrease iron absorption. 5. Avoiding antacids altogether (choice C) may not be necessary if spaced apart appropriately. 6. Taking them 1 hour apart (choice D) may still lead to decreased iron absorption due to antacid interference.
Question 7 of 9
How many liters per minute of oxygen should be administered to the patient with emphysema?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 2 L/min. In emphysema, there is impaired gas exchange due to damaged lung tissue, resulting in decreased oxygen levels. Administering too high a flow rate can lead to oxygen toxicity. The standard oxygen therapy for emphysema is 1-2 L/min to maintain oxygen saturation without causing harm. Higher flow rates like 10 L/min (B) and 6 L/min (C) are excessive and can lead to oxygen toxicity. 95 L/min (D) is dangerously high and not suitable for oxygen therapy in emphysema. Therefore, A is the correct choice for safe and effective oxygen administration in emphysema.
Question 8 of 9
Which client has the highest risk of ovarian cancer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 45-year old woman who has never been pregnant. This client has the highest risk of ovarian cancer due to nulliparity, which is a known risk factor. Women who have never been pregnant have a higher risk of developing ovarian cancer compared to those who have had children. Other choices are incorrect because contraceptives actually reduce the risk of ovarian cancer, having children can slightly decrease the risk, and having a child at a young age does not increase the risk significantly.
Question 9 of 9
A 58-year-old man is diagnosed with cancer of the larynx. Which of the ff. are early symptoms of this cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Dysphagia or hoarseness. In laryngeal cancer, dysphagia and hoarseness are early symptoms due to vocal cord involvement. Hoarseness results from vocal cord paralysis, while dysphagia occurs when the tumor obstructs the esophagus. Anemia and fatigue (choice A) are nonspecific symptoms seen in various conditions. A noticeable lump in the neck (choice B) typically indicates metastasis to the lymph nodes, which occurs later in laryngeal cancer. Crackles and stridor (choice C) are more associated with respiratory conditions rather than laryngeal cancer.