A lot of pyoinflammatory processes in oral cavity are caused by anaerobes. What nutrient medium can be used for control of wound textile contamination by anaerobes?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Kitt-Tarozzi. This medium contains blood and hemin, which are essential nutrients for the growth of anaerobes. Blood provides a source of iron, while hemin stimulates the growth of anaerobes. This combination creates an environment conducive for the isolation and identification of anaerobic organisms. B: Endo and C: Roux are selective media primarily used for the isolation of gram-negative bacteria and not specifically designed for anaerobes. D: Sabouraud's is a medium used for the cultivation of fungi, not anaerobes. In summary, Kitt-Tarozzi is the correct choice due to its specific nutrient composition that supports the growth of anaerobes, unlike the other options which are not suitable for this purpose.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. 1. Gram-positive cocci in chains suggest streptococci. 2. Catalase-negative indicates it's not staphylococci. 3. Beta-hemolytic points towards Group A Streptococcus (S. pyogenes). Summary: B. Streptococcus pneumoniae is not beta-hemolytic. C. Enterococcus faecalis is not typically chains. D. Staphylococcus aureus is catalase-positive.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Thayer-Martin agar. This selective media contains antibiotics that inhibit the growth of other organisms while allowing Neisseria gonorrhoeae to grow. The antibiotics in Thayer-Martin agar include vancomycin, colistin, nystatin, and trimethoprim, which target different types of bacteria, ensuring the isolation of N. gonorrhoeae. Phenylethyl alcohol agar (A) is used to isolate gram-positive organisms, not N. gonorrhoeae. MacConkey agar (C) is selective for gram-negative enteric bacteria. Mannitol salt agar (D) is used for isolating Staphylococcus species based on their ability to ferment mannitol.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Erythrocytic schizogony. In this case, the patient most likely has malaria, specifically caused by Plasmodium falciparum. The fever attacks every 2 days (tertian fever) are characteristic of P. falciparum infection. The cycle of erythrocytic schizogony in P. falciparum is around 48 hours, leading to the recurring fever pattern. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as tissue schizogony does not cause the characteristic fever pattern, exotoxins are not typically involved in malaria fever, and gametocytes do not directly cause fever attacks.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: pericarditis. Pericarditis refers to inflammation of the pericardium, the sac-like membrane surrounding the heart. This condition can cause chest pain, fever, and other symptoms related to the heart. Peritonitis (A) is inflammation of the peritoneum, not the pericardium. Myocardial infarction (C) is a heart attack caused by a blockage in the coronary arteries, not inflammation of the pericardium. Anemia (D) is a condition characterized by a deficiency of red blood cells or hemoglobin, not related to inflammation of the pericardium.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale: The symptoms described are consistent with Balantidiasis, caused by the parasite Balantidium coli. The presence of ciliated oval organisms in the feces is characteristic of this disease. Ulcers in the large intestine are common in Balantidiasis due to tissue invasion by the parasite. Headache, fever, and abdominal pain are typical symptoms. Other choices can be ruled out: B) Amebiasis presents with similar symptoms but usually involves the liver. C) Toxoplasmosis typically presents with lymphadenopathy and flu-like symptoms. D) Lambliasis usually causes watery diarrhea without blood or mucus. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Balantidiasis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because nucleoids in bacteria can vary in number from 1 to 4 depending on the specific bacterial cell and its growth and replication phases. This is due to the dynamic nature of bacterial cells and their genetic material organization. Choice A is incorrect because nucleoids do not contain nuclear membranes or multiple haploid chromosomes like eukaryotic nuclei. Choice B is incorrect as there is no known method of reabsorbing nucleoids by Neisser. Choice D is incorrect as option C is indeed the correct statement regarding the number of nucleoids in bacterial cells.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because protozoan emerging and reemerging diseases fall under Group I according to the classification of infectious diseases by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). Group I includes diseases caused by newly identified or known infectious agents that have increased in incidence or geographic range. Choice B (Group II) includes diseases that have re-emerged due to antimicrobial resistance or lack of previous vaccination. Choice C (Group III) encompasses diseases that can be transmitted from animals to humans, and choice D (Group IV) includes diseases that are caused by re-introduction of eradicated pathogens.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Isoniazid inhibits pyridoxal phosphate synthesis, which is the active form of vitamin B6. Pyridoxal phosphate is essential for various enzymatic reactions, including neurotransmitter synthesis and myelin formation. Therefore, isoniazid-induced pyridoxal phosphate deficiency can lead to neurological symptoms like polyneuritis, paresthesia, memory disorders, and convulsions. A: Disruption of cell membrane synthesis - This is not the mechanism of isoniazid side-effects. B: Inhibition of protein synthesis - Isoniazid does not directly inhibit protein synthesis. C: Inhibition of RNA-synthesis - Isoniazid does not inhibit RNA synthesis; it affects vitamin B6 metabolism.