ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A laboratory finding indicatiNveU oRf SDIICN iGs oTnBe .thCatO sMhows
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: decreased fibrinogen. In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), there is widespread activation of coagulation leading to consumption of clotting factors like fibrinogen, resulting in decreased levels. Platelets are usually decreased, not increased, in DIC. Hematocrit may be elevated due to hemoconcentration but not directly related to DIC. Thromboplastin time would be prolonged, not decreased, in DIC due to consumption of clotting factors.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with preeclampsia is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs indicate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient's symptoms of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain are classic signs of worsening preeclampsia, indicating a significant increase in blood pressure and potential progression to eclampsia (seizures). Immediate medical intervention is crucial to prevent complications. A: Gastrointestinal upset does not explain the combination of symptoms presented. B: Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia but does not cause these specific symptoms. C: Anxiety does not typically present with the specific physical symptoms mentioned.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is creating a care plan for a patient suffering from allergic rhinitis. Which of the following outcomes should the nurse identify?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Improved coping with lifestyle modifications. This outcome is appropriate for a patient with allergic rhinitis as it focuses on helping the patient manage the condition through lifestyle changes, such as avoiding allergens and using medications as prescribed. By improving coping skills, the patient can better manage symptoms and reduce the impact of allergic rhinitis on daily life. Rationale: 1. A: Appropriate use of prophylactic antibiotics is not relevant for allergic rhinitis, which is not typically treated with antibiotics. 2. B: Safe injection of corticosteroids is not a primary treatment for allergic rhinitis and may not be necessary for all patients. 3. C: Improved skin integrity is not a priority outcome for allergic rhinitis, as it primarily affects the respiratory system, not the skin. Summary: Improving coping with lifestyle modifications is the most relevant outcome for a patient with allergic rhinitis, as it addresses the management of symptoms and overall quality of
Question 4 of 9
A patient comes to the ophthalmology clinic for an eye examination. The patient tells the nurse that he often sees floaters in his vision. How should the nurse best interpret this subjective assessment finding?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because floaters are commonly caused by age-related changes in the vitreous humor of the eye, such as the formation of tiny fibers or clumps. These floaters are typically harmless and not a cause for concern. Choice B is incorrect because glasses do not affect floaters in the eye. Choice C is incorrect because floaters are not a primary symptom of glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect because weakened ciliary muscles are not typically associated with floaters. Therefore, the most appropriate interpretation is that seeing floaters is a normal aging process of the eye.
Question 5 of 9
Which piece of data will the nurse use for “B” when using SBAR?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse will use the history of angina for "B" when using SBAR because it provides relevant background information about the patient's cardiac condition. This helps the nurse understand the context of the current situation and make appropriate decisions. Pulse rate of 108 (choice B) is a specific vital sign and not an appropriate choice for "B" in SBAR. Having chest pain (choice A) is important but does not provide the necessary background information like the history of angina does. Oxygen being needed (choice D) is a current intervention and not relevant for "B" in SBAR, which focuses on providing background information.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is reviewing results from a urine specimen.What will the nurse expect to see in a patient with a urinary tract infection?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bacteria. In a patient with a urinary tract infection (UTI), bacteria are typically present in the urine due to the infection of the urinary system. Bacteria may be detected through urine culture or microscopic examination. A: Casts are not typically associated with UTIs but can indicate kidney disease. B: Protein in the urine can indicate kidney damage or other issues, not specific to UTIs. C: Crystals in the urine can be normal or indicate specific conditions, but they are not specific to UTIs. In summary, the presence of bacteria in the urine is a key indicator of a UTI, while the other choices are more indicative of different conditions or factors.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is teaching a health class about theChooseMyPlateprogram. Which guidelines will thenurse include in the teaching session?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, balancing calories. This is because the ChooseMyPlate program emphasizes the importance of maintaining a balance between the calories consumed and calories expended for overall health and weight management. By balancing calories, individuals can ensure they are meeting their nutritional needs without overeating or consuming excess calories. A: Balancing sodium and potassium is important for managing blood pressure, but this is not a specific guideline of the ChooseMyPlate program. B: Decreasing water consumption is not a guideline of the ChooseMyPlate program. Adequate hydration is essential for overall health. C: Increasing portion size is not recommended in the ChooseMyPlate program. It emphasizes portion control and eating appropriate serving sizes of different food groups.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents to the ED complaining of a sudden onset of incapacitating vertigo, with nausea and vomiting and tinnitus. The patient mentions to the nurse that she suddenly cannot hear very well. What would the nurse suspect the patients diagnosis will be?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Labyrinthitis. This condition presents with sudden onset vertigo, nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, and hearing loss, which are all symptoms described by the patient. Labyrinthitis is commonly caused by a viral infection affecting the inner ear, leading to inflammation of the labyrinth. This inflammation disrupts the balance and hearing functions of the inner ear, resulting in the symptoms mentioned. A: Ossiculitis involves inflammation of the middle ear bones, typically causing conductive hearing loss, not the sudden onset of vertigo and other symptoms described. B: Mnire's disease is characterized by recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss, but it typically does not present with sudden onset incapacitating vertigo. C: Ototoxicity is caused by exposure to certain medications or chemicals that damage the inner ear structures, leading to hearing loss. While hearing loss is a symptom, the sudden onset of vertigo is not typically associated with ototoxicity.
Question 9 of 9
A patient has tested HIV-positive and has now discovered that she is pregnant. Which statement indicates that she understands the risks of this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it shows an understanding that being HIV-positive does not guarantee transmission to the baby. The statement acknowledges the possibility of the baby not being affected, which demonstrates awareness of the varying outcomes. Choice A is incorrect as it assumes abortion is the only option. Choice C is incorrect as it makes an extreme and inaccurate claim. Choice D is incorrect as pregnancy does not decrease the chance of developing AIDS.