ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions and answers Questions
Question 1 of 9
A junior nursing student is having an observation day in the operating room. Early in the day, the student tells the OR nurse that her eyes are swelling and she is having trouble breathing. What should the nurse suspect?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Anaphylaxis due to a latex allergy. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can be triggered by exposure to latex products such as gloves in the operating room. The symptoms of swelling of the eyes and difficulty breathing are classic signs of anaphylaxis. Rationale: 1. Swelling of the eyes and difficulty breathing are hallmark symptoms of anaphylaxis. 2. Latex is a common allergen that can cause severe allergic reactions like anaphylaxis. 3. The student's symptoms are occurring shortly after entering the operating room, suggesting an acute allergic reaction. 4. The other choices (A, B, D) do not align with the symptoms presented and are less likely in this scenario.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with HIV is admitted to the hospital because of chronic severe diarrhea. The nurse caring for this patient should expect the physician to order what drug for the management of the patients diarrhea?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sandostatin. This drug is a somatostatin analog that can help manage HIV-related chronic severe diarrhea by reducing gastrointestinal secretions. Sandostatin works by inhibiting the release of various hormones and neurotransmitters in the gut, which can help control diarrhea in HIV patients. Rationale: A: Zithromax is an antibiotic that is not typically used to manage chronic severe diarrhea in HIV patients. C: Levaquin is also an antibiotic and not indicated for managing diarrhea in HIV patients. D: Biaxin is another antibiotic and not the appropriate choice for managing chronic severe diarrhea in HIV patients. In summary, Sandostatin is the correct choice as it specifically targets the underlying cause of diarrhea in HIV patients by reducing gastrointestinal secretions, whereas the other options are antibiotics that are not indicated for this purpose.
Question 3 of 9
You are caring for a patient, a 42-year-old mother of two children, with a diagnosis of ovarian cancer. She has just been told that her ovarian cancer is terminal. When you admitted this patient, you did a spiritual assessment. What question would it have been most important for you to evaluate during this assessment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Does she have a sense of peace of mind and a purpose to her life? This question is crucial during a spiritual assessment because it addresses the patient's emotional well-being and coping mechanisms in the face of a terminal diagnosis. It helps assess the patient's spiritual beliefs, values, and sources of strength, which can impact their ability to find meaning and comfort during difficult times. It also provides insights into the patient's resilience and ability to navigate their emotions and find peace amidst uncertainty. Choice A is incorrect because it focuses on the patient's ability to deliver negative news to her family, which is important but not as central to the patient's spiritual well-being in this context. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes the patient needs to let go of her husband, which may not be relevant to her spiritual assessment. Choice D is incorrect as it centers on bargaining with God for a cure, which may not be reflective of the patient's spiritual beliefs or needs.
Question 4 of 9
A patient has had a total mastectomy with immediate reconstruction. The patient asks the nurse when she can take a shower. What should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Not until the drain is removed. After a mastectomy with immediate reconstruction, there is typically a drain in place to collect fluid. Showering before the drain is removed can increase the risk of infection and disrupt the healing process. It is important to wait until the healthcare provider removes the drain to ensure proper healing and reduce the risk of complications. Summary: B: On the second postoperative day - Too early, the drain needs to be removed first. C: Now, if you wash gently with soap and water - Incorrect, the drain should be removed before showering. D: Seven days after your surgery - Incorrect, waiting for a specific number of days is not necessary, it depends on when the drain is removed.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following nursing interventions would most likely facilitate effective communication with a hearing-impaired patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reduce environmental noise and distractions before communicating. This intervention is most likely to facilitate effective communication with a hearing-impaired patient because it creates an optimal environment for the patient to better focus on the communication. By reducing noise and distractions, the patient can more easily concentrate on the conversation and lip reading, if needed. This approach demonstrates sensitivity to the patient's needs and enhances the chances of successful communication. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Asking the patient to repeat what was said may cause frustration and does not address the environmental factors that can hinder communication. B: Standing directly in front of the patient to facilitate lip reading may help, but it does not address the impact of environmental noise and distractions on communication. D: Raising the voice to project sound at a higher frequency is not effective as it can distort speech and may not necessarily improve understanding for a hearing-impaired patient.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is reviewing the health history of a newly admitted patient and reads that the patient has been previously diagnosed with exostoses. How should the nurse accommodate this fact into the patients plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C Rationale: 1. Exostoses are bony growths in the external auditory canal. 2. These growths can cause narrowing and obstruction of the canal, affecting hearing. 3. Collaborating with the pharmacist to assess for ototoxic medications is crucial to prevent further hearing impairment. 4. Performing Rinne and Weber tests (choice A) and arranging audiometry testing (choice B) are not directly related to exostoses. 5. Ignoring exostoses (choice D) can lead to worsening hearing loss and potential complications.
Question 7 of 9
A 76-year-old with a diagnosis of penile cancer has been admitted to the medical floor. Because the incidence of penile cancer is so low, the staff educator has been asked to teach about penile cancer. What risk factors should the educator cite in this presentation? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phimosis. Phimosis, the inability to retract the foreskin over the glans penis, is a significant risk factor for penile cancer. Phimosis can lead to poor hygiene, inflammation, and chronic irritation, increasing the risk of cancer development. The other choices (B: Priapism, C: Herpes simplex infection, D: Increasing age, E: Lack of circumcision) are not directly linked to penile cancer development. Priapism is prolonged and painful erection unrelated to penile cancer. Herpes simplex infection is a viral infection and not a primary risk factor for penile cancer. Increasing age is a general risk factor for many cancers, but it is not specific to penile cancer. Lack of circumcision has been associated with a slightly higher risk of penile cancer, but it is not as significant as phimosis.
Question 8 of 9
When administering a patients eye drops, the nurse recognizes the need to prevent absorption by the nasolacrimal duct. How can the nurse best achieve this goal?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Occlude the puncta after applying the medication. By occluding the puncta after applying the eye drops, the nurse can prevent the medication from draining into the nasolacrimal duct and being absorbed systemically. This is important to ensure that the medication remains in the eye and exerts its intended local effect. Choice A (Ensure that the patient is well hydrated at all times) is incorrect because hydration status does not directly prevent absorption through the nasolacrimal duct. Choice B (Encourage self-administration of eye drops) is incorrect as the method of administration does not prevent absorption through the nasolacrimal duct. Choice D (Position the patient supine before administering eye drops) is incorrect as it does not address the specific issue of preventing absorption through the nasolacrimal duct.
Question 9 of 9
Which finding on a prenatal visit at 10 weeks might suggest a hydatidiform mole?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fundal height measurement of 18 cm. This finding suggests a hydatidiform mole because it is larger than expected for a 10-week pregnancy due to excessive trophoblastic proliferation. A: Blood pressure is within normal range. B: Nausea is common in early pregnancy and not specific to a mole. D: History of bright red spotting is more indicative of a miscarriage or other complications, not necessarily a mole.