ATI RN
Nursing Process 1 Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A Jewish client has been diagnosed with ulcerative colitis. A nursing diagnosis appropriate for a client who has ulcerative colitis is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: abdominal pain related to decreased peristalsis. Ulcerative colitis causes inflammation and ulcers in the colon, leading to abdominal pain due to decreased peristalsis. This impairs the movement of stool through the colon, resulting in pain. Choice B is incorrect as diarrhea is a common symptom of ulcerative colitis, not hyperosmolar intestinal contents. Choice C is incorrect as ulcerative colitis often leads to diarrhea and not fluid volume excess. Choice D is incorrect as activity intolerance is not directly related to ulcerative colitis, whereas abdominal pain is a common symptom associated with the condition.
Question 2 of 9
A patient has hand-foot syndrome related to his sickle cell anemia. What findings does the nurse expect to see as the patient is assessed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Purplish discoloration of hands and feet. Hand-foot syndrome in sickle cell anemia is characterized by pain, swelling, and purplish discoloration of the hands and feet due to vaso-occlusive crisis. Unequal growth of fingers and toes (A), webbing between fingers and toes (C), and deformities of wrists and ankles (D) are not typical findings associated with hand-foot syndrome in sickle cell anemia.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is discharging a client from the hospital. When should discharge planning be initiated?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Discharge planning should start at admission to ensure comprehensive preparation. 2. Early planning allows for assessment of needs and coordination of resources. 3. It promotes continuity of care and reduces risks of readmission. 4. Options A, C, and D are incorrect as they miss the opportunity for proactive planning.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is interviewing a client about his past medical history. Which preexisting condition may lead the nurse to suspect that a client has colorectal cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Polyps. Polyps in the colon are precancerous growths that can develop into colorectal cancer over time. Identifying polyps during a medical history interview can raise suspicion for colorectal cancer due to their potential to progress into malignancy. Duodenal ulcer (A) is not directly related to colorectal cancer. Weight gain (B) is a non-specific symptom and does not specifically indicate colorectal cancer. Hemorrhoids (C) are common and usually benign, not directly linked to colorectal cancer.
Question 5 of 9
Why should clients who take warfarin (Coumadin) refrain from food items such as green leafy vegetables and soybeans?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because green leafy vegetables and soybeans are high in Vitamin K, which counteracts the anticoagulant effect of warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver. By consuming Vitamin K-rich foods, the medication's effectiveness is reduced, leading to an increased risk of blood clot formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific interaction between Vitamin K and warfarin in affecting coagulation. Choice B suggests the opposite effect of what actually occurs. Choices C and D are irrelevant to the pharmacological mechanism of warfarin.
Question 6 of 9
During a routine checkup, the nurse assesses a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) for signs and symptoms of cancer. What is the common AIDS-related cancer?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Kaposi’s sarcoma. In AIDS patients, Kaposi’s sarcoma is a common cancer caused by human herpesvirus 8. It presents as purple or brown skin lesions. Squamous cell carcinoma (A), leukemia (B), and multiple myeloma (C) are not commonly associated with AIDS. Squamous cell carcinoma is linked to sun exposure, leukemia originates in the bone marrow, and multiple myeloma is a cancer of plasma cells. Therefore, the correct answer is D due to its strong association with AIDS.
Question 7 of 9
When caring for a client, whose being treated for hyperthyroidism, it’s important to:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Monitoring for signs of restlessness, sweating, and excessive weight loss during thyroid replacement therapy is essential in managing hyperthyroidism. Restlessness can indicate increased metabolic rate, sweating can be due to excessive heat production, and weight loss can be a sign of overactive thyroid function. Providing extra blankets (Choice A) may worsen symptoms of heat intolerance. Balancing activity and rest (Choice C) is important, but not specific to hyperthyroidism. Encouraging activity to prevent constipation (Choice D) is not directly related to managing hyperthyroidism.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle crash and suffers a right femur fracture. The leg is stabilized in a full leg cast. Otherwise, the patient has no other major injuries, is in good health, and reports only moderate discomfort. Which is the most pertinent nursing diagnosis the nurse will include in the plan of care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Acute pain. This is the most pertinent nursing diagnosis because the patient has a right femur fracture and reports moderate discomfort. The priority is to address the acute pain associated with the fracture. Posttrauma syndrome (A) typically involves a broader range of emotional and psychological responses beyond just moderate discomfort. Constipation (B) is not the priority in this case, as it is not directly related to the patient's current condition. Anxiety (D) may be present but addressing the acute pain takes precedence in this situation to ensure the patient's comfort and well-being.
Question 9 of 9
A new nurse asks the preceptor to describe the primary purpose of evaluation. Which statement made by the nursing preceptor is most accurate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “Nurses use evaluation to determine the effectiveness of nursing care.” Evaluation in nursing is essential to assess the outcomes of nursing interventions and determine the effectiveness of the care provided. It helps in identifying areas for improvement, making informed decisions, and ensuring quality patient care. Choice A is incorrect because evaluation is not solely about checking completion of tasks but rather assessing the impact of those interventions on patient outcomes. Choice B is incorrect as evaluation is not related to staffing decisions but focuses on assessing the quality of care delivery. Choice D is incorrect as evaluation is not about eliminating paperwork but rather about improving care outcomes.