ATI RN
nclex practice questions 2023 health assessment Questions
Question 1 of 9
A hospitalized patient who has received numerous antibiotics is being assessed by the nurse, who notes that his tongue appears black and hairy. Which of the following would the nurse say to the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "This is a fungal infection caused by all the antibiotics you've received." The black, hairy tongue is a known side effect of prolonged antibiotic use, which disrupts the balance of normal oral flora and predisposes to fungal overgrowth, specifically of the yeast Candida. Antibiotics can eliminate the competing bacteria that normally keep Candida in check. Therefore, the patient's symptoms are most likely due to a fungal infection related to antibiotic therapy, rather than a bacterial issue or temporary overgrowth of hair. Biopsy is not necessary as the condition is commonly seen in this context and can be managed with appropriate treatment for fungal overgrowth.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse suspects that a patient has otitis media. Which of the following findings of the tympanic membrane are early signs of otitis media?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red and bulging. In otitis media, the tympanic membrane becomes red and bulging due to inflammation and fluid accumulation. This is an early sign as it indicates increased pressure within the middle ear. Choice B (Hypomobility) is incorrect because it refers to decreased movement of the tympanic membrane, which is not specific to otitis media. Choice C (Retraction with landmarks clearly visible) is incorrect as it suggests the tympanic membrane is pulled inward, which is more indicative of otitis media with effusion rather than acute otitis media. Choice D (Flat, slightly pulled in at the center, and moves with insufflation) is incorrect as it describes a normal or retracted tympanic membrane rather than the characteristic red and bulging appearance seen in otitis media.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse notices that a patient's palpebral fissures are not symmetrical. On examination, the nurse may find that there has been damage to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C (CN VII) is correct: 1. Palpebral fissures are controlled by muscles innervated by CN VII (facial nerve). 2. Damage to CN VII can result in facial asymmetry, affecting palpebral fissures. 3. CN III (choice A) controls eye movement, not palpebral fissures. 4. CN V (choice B) controls facial sensation, not palpebral fissures. 5. CN VIII (choice D) controls hearing and balance, not palpebral fissures. Summary: Choice C is correct as damage to CN VII affects palpebral fissures due to facial muscle innervation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not control the muscles responsible for palpebral fissures.
Question 4 of 9
During the assessment of a 26-year-old, she states,"I have a spot on my lip I think is cancer." The nurse notes the following: a cluster of clear vesicles with an erythematous base around them located at the lip"“ skin border. The patient mentions that she just returned from Hawaii. What would be the most appropriate response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the presentation of clear vesicles with an erythematous base around them at the lip-skin border is characteristic of herpes simplex virus 1 infection, commonly known as cold sores. Given the patient's recent travel to Hawaii, exposure to the virus is likely. This infection is self-limiting and typically heals in 4 to 10 days without the need for specific treatment. Choice A is incorrect because seeing a skin specialist may not be necessary for a self-limiting viral infection. Choice B is incorrect as a biopsy is not typically indicated for a clear clinical diagnosis of herpes simplex virus infection. Choice D is incorrect as riboflavin deficiency does not present with clear vesicles and erythema at the lip-skin border.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is preparing to auscultate a patient's enlarged thyroid for the presence of a bruit. A bruit is a:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because a bruit is a soft, whooshing, pulsatile sound best heard with the bell of the stethoscope. This sound indicates turbulent blood flow, often due to a narrowed or blocked artery. Using the bell of the stethoscope allows for better detection of low-frequency sounds like bruits. A is incorrect because a low gurgling sound is not indicative of a bruit. B is incorrect because a loud, whooshing, blowing sound is not characteristic of a bruit. D is incorrect because a high-pitched tinkling sound is not typically associated with a bruit. In summary, the correct answer is C because it accurately describes the characteristics of a bruit, while the other choices do not align with the typical sound of a bruit.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is aware that all of the areas in the body where lymph nodes are accessible for examination are the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because lymph nodes are accessible for examination in the head and neck, arms, breasts, and axillae. Lymph nodes are present in these areas where they can be easily palpated and assessed for any signs of inflammation or abnormalities. The other choices are incorrect because they do not include all the areas where lymph nodes are accessible for examination. Choice A does not include the axillae, which is a crucial area for examining lymph nodes in the arms. Choice B does not include the axillae and breasts. Choice D does not include the breasts, which are important areas for lymph node examination in cases of breast cancer or other breast-related conditions.
Question 7 of 9
While performing a well-child assessment on a 5-year-old, the nurse notes the presence of palpable bilateral cervical and inguinal lymph nodes. The nodes are approximately 5 cm in size, round, mobile, and nontender. The nurse suspects that this:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: child may have an infection. Enlarged, palpable, mobile, and non-tender lymph nodes in multiple areas suggest an immune response to an infection. In children, common causes include viral or bacterial infections. The size and characteristics of the lymph nodes described in the question are not typical of chronic allergies or a normal finding in a healthy child. Referral for additional evaluation would be premature without first considering the possibility of an infection, which is the most likely cause based on the provided information.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following physiological changes is responsible for presbyopia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, loss of lens elasticity. Presbyopia is the age-related loss of near vision due to the lens becoming less flexible, making it harder to focus on close objects. With aging, the lens loses its ability to change shape, affecting near vision. Other choices are incorrect because presbyopia is primarily related to changes in the lens, not the cornea (A), adaptation to darkness (C), or distance vision abilities (D).
Question 9 of 9
During an examination of a female patient, the nurse observes lymphadenopathy and suspects an acute infection. Acutely infected lymph nodes would be:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: clumped. Acutely infected lymph nodes typically present as clumped due to inflammation and enlargement of multiple nodes in close proximity. This clustering is a result of the immune response to the infection. Choice B: unilateral is incorrect as lymphadenopathy in acute infection can be unilateral or bilateral. Choice C: firm but freely movable is incorrect as acutely infected lymph nodes are usually tender and may not be freely movable due to inflammation. Choice D: hard and nontender is incorrect as acutely infected lymph nodes are usually tender and may not be hard.