ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A hospitalized client has the following blood lab values: WBC 3,000/ul, RBC 5.0 (X 106), platelets 300, 000, what would be a priority nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preventing infection. With a low WBC count of 3,000/ul, the client is at high risk for infection due to compromised immune function. Priority is to prevent infection by implementing strict infection control measures, such as hand hygiene, sterile techniques, and isolation precautions. Alleviating pain (B) would be important but not the priority in this case. Controlling infection (C) is similar to preventing infection and would be a secondary intervention. Monitoring blood transfusion reactions (D) is not relevant to the client's current lab values.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following best defines the process of evaluating a nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because evaluating a nursing intervention involves collecting data to determine if the goals set for the intervention were achieved. This process helps in assessing the effectiveness of the intervention in meeting the desired outcomes. Option B is incorrect as it refers to the identification of nursing diagnoses for new problems, which is part of the nursing assessment phase, not evaluation. Option C is incorrect as adjusting the care plan to include collaborative interventions is part of the implementation phase, not evaluation. Option D is incorrect as performing client care tasks as per protocol is part of the implementation phase, not evaluation.
Question 3 of 9
A client with advanced liver cancer is scheduled for chemotherapy. As part of the chemotherapy regimen, the nurse expects the physician to prescribe:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluorouracil (5-fluorouracil, 5-FU). Fluorouracil is a commonly used chemotherapy drug for treating advanced liver cancer. It works by inhibiting the growth of cancer cells. This drug is specifically effective in targeting rapidly dividing cells, which is a characteristic of cancer cells. Fluorouracil is often used in combination with other chemotherapy drugs to improve treatment outcomes. Summary of other choices: A: Fluoxymesterone (Halotestin) - This is an androgen hormone used to treat certain types of breast cancer, not liver cancer. C: Tamoxifen (Nolvadex) - This is a hormonal therapy drug used in breast cancer, not liver cancer. D: Megestrol (Megace) - This is a hormonal therapy drug used for certain types of cancers, but not typically for liver cancer.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following illustrates a common error when writing client outcomes?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it does not provide a specific, measurable outcome. It is vague and subjective, making it difficult to assess and track progress. In contrast, choices A, B, and D are all specific, measurable, and time-bound goals, making them more effective for evaluating client outcomes. Choice A specifies the amount of fluid intake and the time frame, choice B sets a clear deadline for demonstrating a skill, and choice D outlines a specific task to be completed upon discharge. Therefore, C is the correct answer as it lacks the clear criteria needed for effective outcome evaluation.
Question 5 of 9
A hospitalized client has the following blood lab values: WBC 3,000/ul, RBC 5.0 (X 106), platelets 300, 000, what would be a priority nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preventing infection. With a low WBC count of 3,000/ul, the client is at high risk for infection due to compromised immune function. Priority is to prevent infection by implementing strict infection control measures, such as hand hygiene, sterile techniques, and isolation precautions. Alleviating pain (B) would be important but not the priority in this case. Controlling infection (C) is similar to preventing infection and would be a secondary intervention. Monitoring blood transfusion reactions (D) is not relevant to the client's current lab values.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse begins a shift assessment by examining a surgical dressing that is saturated with serosanguineous drainage on a patient who had open abdominal surgery yesterday (or 1 day ago). Which type of assessment approach is the nurse using?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: General to specific assessment. This type of assessment approach involves starting with a broad overview of the patient's condition and then narrowing down to specific details. In this scenario, the nurse begins by examining the surgical dressing, which is a specific aspect of the patient's condition, after which they can proceed to gather more detailed information about the drainage, wound healing, and any associated symptoms. This approach allows the nurse to systematically assess the patient's postoperative status and identify any potential issues. A: Gordon’s Functional Health Patterns is a comprehensive framework for organizing patient data, but it does not specifically address the sequence of assessment in this scenario. B: Activity-exercise pattern assessment focuses on the patient's activity level and exercise habits, which is not the primary concern in this situation. D: Problem-oriented assessment involves identifying and addressing specific health problems, but it does not capture the systematic progression from general to specific assessment as seen in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse knows that Parkinson’s disease a progressive neurologic disorder is characterized by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Parkinson's disease is characterized by bradykinesia, tremor, and muscle rigidity. Bradykinesia refers to slowness of movement, tremor involves involuntary shaking, and muscle rigidity causes stiffness and resistance to movement. These three symptoms are commonly known as the classic triad of Parkinson's disease. Therefore, selecting "All of the above" (D) is the correct choice as it encompasses all the key features of Parkinson's disease. Choices A, B, and C individually are incorrect because they do not fully capture the comprehensive presentation of symptoms in Parkinson's disease.
Question 8 of 9
Which common side effect of metolazone (Zaroxolyn) should the nurse instruct a patient to report to the health- care provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle weakness. Metolazone is a diuretic that can lead to low potassium levels, causing muscle weakness. Instructing the patient to report muscle weakness is crucial to prevent any potential serious complications. Numb hands, gastrointestinal distress, and nightmares are not commonly associated with metolazone and do not pose as immediate risks as muscle weakness does. It is essential to prioritize the most critical side effect to ensure the patient's safety and well-being.
Question 9 of 9
Why should the nurse closely monitor older adults when they are receiving IV therapy? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: E
Rationale: The correct answer is not provided in the choices. However, if I were to choose from the given options, the most appropriate would be C: "Because they are prone to reduced renal efficiency." This is important because older adults may have decreased kidney function, leading to potential complications with IV therapy. Option A is incorrect as defense mechanisms are not directly related to monitoring IV therapy. Option B is incorrect as fluid overload is a general concern with IV therapy regardless of age. Option D is irrelevant to the need for monitoring IV therapy in older adults.