ATI RN
ATI Hematologic System Test Questions
Question 1 of 5
A hospitalized client has a platelet count of 58,000/mm³. What action by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Place the client on safety precautions. A platelet count of 58,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, increasing the risk of bleeding. Placing the client on safety precautions will minimize the risk of injury and bleeding. Encouraging high-protein foods (choice A) is not directly related to managing thrombocytopenia. Neutropenic precautions (choice B) are for clients with low neutrophil counts, not low platelet counts. Limiting visitors to healthy adults (choice C) is important for infection control, not addressing the risk of bleeding.
Question 2 of 5
A 13-year-old Hispanic girl is found to have a WBC count of 6,500/mm3 with 40% Auer rod–containing granular blasts that, by flow cytometry, express very bright CD33 but are negative for human leukocyte antigen–DR isotype (HLA-DR). She is oozing blood around her peripheral IV site. Coagulation studies reveal an international normalized ratio (INR) of 3.4, a fibrinogen of 170, and a markedly elevated D-dimer. Marrow aspirate shows nearly 90% blasts with a similar morphology. You send the marrow to the fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) lab and request STAT testing for the most likely recurrent genetic abnormality based on the clinical presentation. How do you plan to initiate therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Begin therapy with all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) immediately while aggressively managing coagulopathy with blood product support. The patient's presentation is consistent with acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL), indicated by the presence of Auer rod-containing blasts, very bright CD33 expression, and coagulopathy (elevated INR, low fibrinogen, elevated D-dimer). APL is associated with a specific genetic abnormality involving the PML-RARA fusion gene. ATRA is the mainstay of induction therapy for APL as it induces differentiation of leukemic promyelocytes. Aggressive management of coagulopathy is crucial to prevent life-threatening bleeding complications. Incorrect answers: A: Performing a lumbar puncture is not necessary at this stage as the patient's symptoms and laboratory findings point towards APL, not central nervous system involvement. C: Dexamethasone and hydroxyurea are not
Question 3 of 5
You are seeing a 12-year-old boy in the survivorship program who presented at 2 years old with a desmoplastic nodular medulloblastoma. You note the child recently underwent germline genetic testing and was found to have nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome. In which gene is the child most likely to have a pathogenic variant?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome is also known as Gorlin syndrome, caused by mutations in SUFU. 2. SUFU gene regulates the Hedgehog signaling pathway, implicated in medulloblastoma development. 3. Desmoplastic nodular medulloblastoma is commonly seen in Gorlin syndrome. 4. PTEN is associated with Cowden syndrome, CDKN2A with melanoma, and SMARCB1 with rhabdoid tumors, not typically seen in Gorlin syndrome.
Question 4 of 5
A patient is scheduled for upcoming surgery. He is on nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for rheumatoid arthritis. You are being asked what to do with his medications for the surgery. What is the mechanism of action of NSAIDS?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase 1. NSAIDs work by reversibly inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzymes, particularly COX-1 and COX-2, which are involved in the synthesis of prostaglandins. In this case, reversible inhibition is crucial because it allows for the temporary suppression of prostaglandin production, leading to pain relief and anti-inflammatory effects. Explanation of other choices: A: Irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase 1 - This is incorrect because NSAIDs typically do not irreversibly inhibit COX-1. B: Irreversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase 2 - This is incorrect because NSAIDs do not irreversibly inhibit COX-2. D: Reversible inhibition of cyclooxygenase 2 - This is incorrect because while NSAIDs can inhibit COX-2, the primary target is COX-1 for their therapeutic effects.
Question 5 of 5
A 14-year-old boy presents with cough, shortness of breath, and difficulty lying down. His face and neck swell when his arms are raised. Chest x-ray reveals a large mediastinal mass. A tissue diagnosis is desired. A biopsy is performed with local anesthesia because the anesthesiologist thinks that the patient has a very high general anesthesia risk. Which of the following findings does not make general anesthesia unsafe?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. A malignancy of hematopoietic origin does not inherently make general anesthesia unsafe. This is because anesthesia risk is typically influenced by factors such as airway patency, respiratory function, and cardiac status. Choices A, B, and C all indicate potential complications that could make general anesthesia unsafe, such as airway obstruction due to a large mediastinal mass (A), compromised tracheal cross-sectional area (B), and impaired respiratory function (C). These factors would necessitate careful consideration and potential modifications in the anesthesia plan to ensure patient safety.