ATI RN
ATI Hematologic System Test Questions
Question 1 of 5
A hospitalized client has a platelet count of 58,000/mm³. What action by the nurse is best?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Place the client on safety precautions. A platelet count of 58,000/mm³ indicates thrombocytopenia, increasing the risk of bleeding. Safety precautions aim to prevent injury and minimize bleeding risks. Encouraging high-protein foods (choice A) is not directly related to managing thrombocytopenia. Instituting neutropenic precautions (choice B) is for clients with low white blood cell counts, not platelet counts. Limiting visitors to healthy adults (choice C) is important for infection control, not specifically for thrombocytopenia. In summary, placing the client on safety precautions is the best action to prevent bleeding complications.
Question 2 of 5
A 13-year-old Hispanic girl is found to have a WBC count of 6,500/mm3 with 40% Auer rod–containing granular blasts that, by flow cytometry, express very bright CD33 but are negative for human leukocyte antigen–DR isotype (HLA-DR). She is oozing blood around her peripheral IV site. Coagulation studies reveal an international normalized ratio (INR) of 3.4, a fibrinogen of 170, and a markedly elevated D-dimer. Marrow aspirate shows nearly 90% blasts with a similar morphology. You send the marrow to the fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) lab and request STAT testing for the most likely recurrent genetic abnormality based on the clinical presentation. How do you plan to initiate therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Begin therapy with all-trans retinoic acid (ATRA) immediately while aggressively managing coagulopathy with blood product support. Rationale: 1. The clinical presentation describes acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL), characterized by Auer rod-containing blasts, coagulopathy (elevated INR, D-dimer), and CD33 positivity. ATRA is the standard treatment for APL. 2. ATRA induces differentiation of leukemic promyelocytes, reducing the risk of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) and bleeding. 3. Aggressively managing the coagulopathy with blood product support is crucial to prevent hemorrhagic complications. Summary: A: Not needed as the clinical presentation already suggests APL. Lumbar puncture is not indicated for APL diagnosis. C: Dexamethasone and hydroxyurea are not standard treatments for APL. Immediate ATRA therapy is preferred. D
Question 3 of 5
You are seeing a 12-year-old boy in the survivorship program who presented at 2 years old with a desmoplastic nodular medulloblastoma. You note the child recently underwent germline genetic testing and was found to have nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome. In which gene is the child most likely to have a pathogenic variant?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: The correct answer is C: SUFU. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome, also known as Gorlin syndrome, is associated with pathogenic variants in the SUFU gene. SUFU is a tumor suppressor gene involved in the sonic hedgehog signaling pathway, which plays a role in medulloblastoma and basal cell carcinoma development. PTEN (A) is associated with Cowden syndrome, CDKN2A (B) with familial atypical multiple mole melanoma syndrome, and SMARCB1 (D) with rhabdoid tumor predisposition syndrome, but not specifically linked to nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome.
Question 4 of 5
A patient is scheduled for upcoming surgery. He is on nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for rheumatoid arthritis. You are being asked what to do with his medications for the surgery. What is the mechanism of action of NSAIDS?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: NSAIDs inhibit cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes to reduce prostaglandin synthesis. Step 2: Reversible inhibition means the effect is temporary and can be reversed. Step 3: COX-1 inhibition leads to GI side effects, which can be concerning in surgery. Step 4: COX-2 inhibition is more targeted for inflammation but can still pose cardiovascular risks. Step 5: Reversible COX-1 inhibition allows for temporary discontinuation before surgery to minimize bleeding risk. Summary: Choice C is correct as reversible COX-1 inhibition allows for safer management pre-surgery compared to irreversible inhibition in choices A and B, and COX-2 inhibition in choice D.
Question 5 of 5
A 14-year-old boy presents with cough, shortness of breath, and difficulty lying down. His face and neck swell when his arms are raised. Chest x-ray reveals a large mediastinal mass. A tissue diagnosis is desired. A biopsy is performed with local anesthesia because the anesthesiologist thinks that the patient has a very high general anesthesia risk. Which of the following findings does not make general anesthesia unsafe?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a malignancy of hematopoietic origin does not inherently increase the risk of general anesthesia. Hematopoietic malignancies such as leukemia or lymphoma do not directly impact the respiratory system or airway, unlike the other choices. A: Tumor size affecting transthoracic diameter can compress airways, leading to respiratory compromise. B: Tracheal cross-sectional area affects air flow and can be a concern during intubation. C: Peak expiratory flow rate indicates respiratory function; lower values suggest increased risk under general anesthesia. Therefore, D is the correct answer as it does not pose a direct risk to general anesthesia.