ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A hospice patient is manifesting a decrease in all body system functions except for a heart rate of 124 and a respiratory rate of 28. Which statement, if made by the nurse to the patient’s family member, is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because an increase in heart rate and respiratory rate can be a normal response before body system functions decrease in a hospice patient. This is known as a compensatory mechanism as the body tries to maintain oxygenation. Choice A is incorrect because symptoms may not always continue to increase until death. Choice C is incorrect as it implies a reflex response, which may not be the case. Choice D is incorrect as an improvement in the patient's condition is unlikely in a hospice setting.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with hypotension and an elevated temperature after working outside on a hot day is treated in the emergency department (ED). The nurse determines that discharge teaching has been effective when the patient makes which statement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: "I should drink sports drinks when working outside in hot weather." This statement is correct because hypotension and elevated temperature could indicate dehydration and electrolyte imbalance due to excessive sweating in hot weather. Drinking sports drinks can help replenish electrolytes lost through sweating and prevent dehydration. Incorrect choices: A: Taking salt tablets can lead to an imbalance in electrolytes and worsen the condition. B: Acetaminophen can lower fever but does not address dehydration or electrolyte imbalance. D: Moving to a cool environment when feeling confused is important but does not address the underlying issue of dehydration and electrolyte imbalance.
Question 3 of 9
The patient has just returned from having an arteriovenous fistula placed. The patient asks, “When will they be able to use this and take this other catheter out?” The nurse should reply,
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “The fistula will be usable in about 4 to 6 weeks.” The rationale for this is that an arteriovenous fistula typically requires 4 to 6 weeks to mature and be ready for use. During this time, the fistula develops the necessary blood flow for efficient dialysis. Choice A is incorrect because immediate use of the fistula is not recommended as it needs time to mature. Choice B is incorrect as it underestimates the time needed for the fistula to heal and mature. Choice D is incorrect as the usability of the fistula is not dependent on the manufacturer but rather on the patient's individual healing process.
Question 4 of 9
A 65-year-old patient with a history of metastatic lung car cinoma has been unresponsive to chemotherapy. The medical team has determined that ther e are no additional treatments available that will prolong life or improve the quality of lifaebi ribn.c oamn/yte smt eaningful way. Despite the poor prognosis, the patient continues to receive chemotherapy and full nutrition support. This is an example of what end-of-life concept?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Medical futility. In this scenario, the patient's condition is terminal with no treatment options left. Continuing chemotherapy offers no benefit and may even harm the patient. Medical futility refers to interventions that are unlikely to achieve the desired outcome. B: Palliative care focuses on improving quality of life for patients with serious illnesses, which is not being addressed in this case. C: Terminal weaning involves gradually removing life-support measures, which is not happening here. D: Withdrawal of treatment would be appropriate if the treatments were no longer beneficial, but the issue here is the continued provision of futile treatment.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is preparing to provide postmortem care for a patient who has just died. Which action should the nurse take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: A: Closing the patient's eyes and placing a pillow under the head is the first step in postmortem care to maintain dignity and prevent airway occlusion. B: Washing the body and changing clothes can be done later and is not the priority. C: Removing medical equipment can wait until after ensuring the patient's comfort. D: Confirming the death certificate is important but not the immediate first step in postmortem care.
Question 6 of 9
A patient nearing death experiences increased secretions and noisy breathing. What is the nurse’s priority intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer anticholinergic medications as prescribed. Anticholinergic medications can help dry up secretions and improve breathing in a patient nearing death. This intervention targets the underlying cause of increased secretions. Suctioning (choice A) may provide temporary relief but does not address the root issue. Elevating the head of the bed and repositioning (choice C) can help with comfort but do not directly address the secretions. Restricting oral intake (choice D) may lead to dehydration and discomfort without effectively managing the secretions. Administering anticholinergic medications is the priority as it directly targets the symptom of increased secretions, improving the patient's comfort and quality of life.
Question 7 of 9
The most common reasons for initiating dialysis in acute kidney injury include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Volume overload. In acute kidney injury, impaired kidney function leads to fluid retention, causing volume overload. Dialysis helps remove excess fluid to restore fluid balance. Acidosis and hyperkalemia are potential complications of acute kidney injury but not the primary reasons for initiating dialysis. Hypokalemia is unlikely in acute kidney injury due to impaired excretion of potassium by the kidneys. Therefore, the most common reason for initiating dialysis in acute kidney injury is to manage volume overload.
Question 8 of 9
Many critically ill patients experience anxiety. The nurse can reduce anxiety with which approach?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it addresses the patient's anxiety by providing clear communication and involving the patient in the care process. By explaining the turning procedure, inspecting the skin, and providing comfort through lotion application, the nurse establishes trust and promotes a sense of control for the patient. This approach helps alleviate anxiety by keeping the patient informed and engaged in their care. Choice A is incorrect because limiting family visitation may not directly address the patient's anxiety. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on routine information rather than directly addressing the patient's anxiety. Choice D is incorrect because suctioning the endotracheal tube may cause discomfort and does not address the underlying anxiety issue.
Question 9 of 9
What risk is the rationale for the recommendation of endot racheal rather than nasotracheal intubation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Basilar skull fracture. Endotracheal intubation is recommended over nasotracheal intubation to avoid the risk of further damaging a basilar skull fracture. Nasotracheal intubation can potentially cause further injury due to the passage of the tube through the nasal cavity, which could exacerbate a basilar skull fracture. Summary of other choices: B: Cervical hyperextension - Not directly related to the choice between endotracheal and nasotracheal intubation. C: Impaired ability to "mouth" words - Not a significant factor in determining the choice of intubation method. D: Sinusitis and infection - While nasotracheal intubation can potentially lead to sinusitis and infection, the primary concern in this scenario is the risk of aggravating a basilar skull fracture.