ATI RN
Pediatric Genetic Disorders Questions
Question 1 of 5
A healthy mother is married to a man who has a roberstonian 14,21 balance. What is the possibility to have a baby with down syndrome?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: 1/6 ( missing in OCR) is correct. Rationale: 45, XY, t(14;21) produces 6 gametes: normal, t(14;21), 14, 21, null 14, null 21. With 46, XX, only 21+t(14;21) yields 47, +21 (Down), 1/6 chance.
Question 2 of 5
The clinical features of patients with Marfan syndrome are caused by unusually stretchable connective tissue. The most observed features in Marfan syndrome affect the eye, the skeleton, and the cardiovascular system. This is an example of:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Marfan syndrome’s multiple effects (eye, skeleton, heart) from FBN1 mutations exemplify pleiotropy (B). Rationale: One gene mutation (FBN1) affects connective tissue across systems, unlike allelic heterogeneity (different mutations, same phenotype) or anticipation (worsening generations).
Question 3 of 5
A 17-year-old Tanner stage 2 female presents with a history of bilateral spontaneous milky discharge from her breasts for 2 months. Menarche was at age 12 years, and her periods had been regular until 4 months before this visit to your office. In addition, she complains of headache on awakening for the past 2 weeks. The most useful screening test is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Galactorrhea (milky discharge), amenorrhea, and headaches suggest hyperprolactinemia, possibly from a pituitary adenoma. Serum prolactin level (C) is the most useful initial test. Rationale: Pregnancy tests (A, B) are relevant but less likely given Tanner stage 2 and no sexual history implied; prolactin directly assesses the suspected cause, unlike estrogen (D) or LH (E, not listed).
Question 4 of 5
Vulvovaginitis in prepubertal girls is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Prepubertal vulvovaginitis features discharge (B), erythema (C), and pruritus (D), but exacerbation at puberty (A) is incorrect as it’s more common pre-puberty due to low estrogen. Rationale: Masturbation (E) may contribute but isn’t a defining feature; puberty increases estrogen, reducing incidence.
Question 5 of 5
The treatment of choice for the patient in Questions 11 and 12 is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bromocriptine (B), a dopamine agonist, is first-line for prolactinomas, shrinking tumors and normalizing prolactin. Rationale: Surgery (A) is for large/non-responsive tumors; Ondansetron (C) treats nausea, phenothiazine (D) increases prolactin, and antidepressants (E) are unrelated.