A healthy man is in a region with high risk of catching malaria. What drug should be administered for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chingamin (also known as Chloroquine). Chingamin is the drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis of malaria in regions with high risk. It is effective against Plasmodium falciparum, the most common malaria parasite. Chingamin is well-tolerated, affordable, and has a long track record of use. Sulfalen (Choice B) is not commonly used for malaria prophylaxis. Tetracycline (Choice C) is not recommended for malaria prophylaxis due to poor efficacy and resistance development. Metronidazole (Choice D) is not effective against malaria parasites.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: The symptoms of optic nerve neuritis, memory impairment, and cramps are indicative of ethambutol toxicity. Step 2: Ethambutol is known to cause optic nerve toxicity leading to neuritis, as well as CNS toxicity causing memory impairment. Step 3: Ethambutol can also lead to peripheral neuropathy manifesting as cramps. Step 4: Isoniazid is associated with peripheral neuropathy and hepatotoxicity but not with optic nerve neuritis or memory impairment. Step 5: PASA is not commonly used for tuberculosis treatment and does not cause the described symptoms. Step 6: Rifampicin is known for hepatotoxicity and flu-like symptoms, but not specifically for optic nerve neuritis, memory impairment, or cramps. Summary: Ethambutol is the correct answer due to its known side effects of optic nerve toxicity, CNS toxicity, and peripheral neuropathy, which align with the presented symptoms. Ison

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Penicillin. Penicillin is the drug of first choice for treating syphilis due to its effectiveness in eradicating the bacterium Treponema pallidum, which causes syphilis. It is the most reliable treatment with well-established efficacy. Gentamicin (A), ciprofloxacin (C), and chloramphenicol (D) are not recommended for treating syphilis as they are not effective against the specific bacteria causing the infection. Penicillin remains the gold standard for syphilis treatment.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because Gram-negative bacteria have an outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides, which is a key characteristic used in Gram staining. This outer membrane is responsible for the pink/red color seen when stained with Gram stain. Choice A is incorrect because Gram-negative bacteria have a thin peptidoglycan layer. Choice C is incorrect because Gram-negative bacteria stain pink, not purple. Choice D is incorrect because all bacteria have a cell wall, but Gram-negative bacteria have a different structure compared to Gram-positive bacteria.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pertussis toxoid. This is because pertussis toxoid is a component of the pertussis vaccine, which provides specific prophylaxis against pertussis by stimulating the immune system to produce antibodies against the bacteria causing the disease. Choice B, killed vaccine, is incorrect as it does not specify pertussis toxoid. Choice C, wide-spectrum antibiotics, is incorrect as antibiotics are used for treatment, not prophylaxis. Choice D, None of the above, is incorrect as pertussis toxoid is specifically used for prophylaxis of pertussis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Chitin is a polysaccharide found in the cell walls of fungi. Bacteria have cell walls made of peptidoglycan, not chitin. Viruses do not have cell walls as they are acellular entities. Therefore, the correct answer is A: fungi.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Relenza and Tamiflu. Both Relenza and Tamiflu are anti-influenza drugs that target the neuraminidase enzyme of the influenza virus, thereby inhibiting its replication and spread. Maxi Grip (A) is not an anti-influenza drug, Theraflu (B) contains different active ingredients, and Amantadine and Rimantadine (C) target a different viral protein, M2 ion channel. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not specifically target neuraminidase for influenza treatment.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Resistance to heat and dehydration. Spore-forming bacteria form spores as a survival mechanism in harsh conditions. These spores are highly resistant to heat and dehydration, allowing the bacteria to withstand extreme environments. This characteristic is essential for their long-term survival and ability to persist in unfavorable conditions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because not all spore-forming bacteria produce toxins, have flagella, or are capable of photosynthesis. These characteristics are not exclusive to spore-forming bacteria and do not define them as a group.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: C. botulinum. The description of gram-positive bacilli with subterminal staining defect and tennis racket appearance is characteristic of Clostridium botulinum. The subterminal staining defect indicates the presence of spores, a feature of Clostridium species. The tennis racket appearance refers to the characteristic shape of C. botulinum spores. Choice B, P. vulgaris, is a gram-negative bacterium and doesn't match the description. Choice C, E. coli, is a gram-negative bacillus and doesn't exhibit the subterminal staining defect described. Choice D, S. aureus, is a gram-positive cocci and does not resemble the tennis racket appearance described.