A healthy man is in a region with high risk of catching malaria. What drug should be administered for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chingamin (also known as Chloroquine). Chingamin is the drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis of malaria in regions with high risk. It is effective against Plasmodium falciparum, the most common malaria parasite. Chingamin is well-tolerated, affordable, and has a long track record of use. Sulfalen (Choice B) is not commonly used for malaria prophylaxis. Tetracycline (Choice C) is not recommended for malaria prophylaxis due to poor efficacy and resistance development. Metronidazole (Choice D) is not effective against malaria parasites.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Actinomycosis. This is a chronic bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species. In this case, the description of dense yellow-green colored focus, white granules in purulent masses, and presence of fungal druses, plasma cells, xanthome cells, and macrophages all match the characteristics of actinomycosis. Actinomycosis typically presents with abscess formation containing sulfur granules, which are yellowish and granular. The other choices (B: Furuncle, C: Carbuncle, D: Syphilis) do not fit the clinical and histological features described in the question, making them incorrect options.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Microaerophiles. These bacteria grow best in environments with low oxygen levels. They require oxygen for respiration but at lower concentrations than what is present in the atmosphere. This allows them to thrive in conditions where oxygen is limited but not completely absent. A: Facultative anaerobes can grow in both the presence and absence of oxygen. B: Obligate aerobes require oxygen for growth. D: Obligate anaerobes cannot survive in the presence of oxygen and typically grow in anaerobic environments. In summary, microaerophiles are the correct choice as they specifically thrive in low oxygen environments, distinguishing them from the other options.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the case specifically mentions "enteropathogenic bacteria and viruses," indicating a focus on these specific microorganisms. Choice A is too broad and includes all bacteria, which is not specified in the case. Choice B mentions opportunistic pathogenic bacteria, which are not necessarily relevant to the case. Choice D specifies colibacilli, which may or may not be relevant to the case, but it is not as specific as choice C which clearly matches the information provided in the case.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acyclovir is an antiviral drug used to treat herpes infections, not influenza. Tamiflu, Amantadine, and Relenza are all antiviral drugs commonly used to treat influenza. Acyclovir works by inhibiting the replication of herpes viruses, so it is not effective against the influenza virus. Therefore, the correct answer is A.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Two-layer. In gram-positive bacteria, the cell envelope consists of two layers: the thick peptidoglycan layer and the cytoplasmic membrane. The peptidoglycan layer is much thicker compared to gram-negative bacteria, providing structural support and protection. The cytoplasmic membrane is located beneath the peptidoglycan layer and serves as a barrier between the cytoplasm and the external environment. The other choices are incorrect because gram-positive bacteria do have a cell envelope, it is composed of two layers, not three layers, and it is not just a single layer. Choice D is incorrect as it states that there is no cell envelope in gram-positive bacteria, which is not true.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Protein A is a virulence factor specific to Staphylococcus aureus. This protein binds to the Fc region of immunoglobulins, inhibiting opsonization and phagocytosis. Therefore, the correct answer is B. Coagulase negative staphylococcus (choice A) does not produce Protein A. Micrococcus (choice C) is a different genus and does not possess Protein A. Choice D is incorrect because Protein A is indeed found in Staphylococcus aureus.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: Schizogony is the process in protozoans where multiple nuclear divisions occur before cell division. This results in the formation of multiple daughter cells. - A: Budding is a form of asexual reproduction where a new organism grows from an outgrowth on the parent. - B: Mitosis is a type of cell division that results in two identical daughter cells. - D: Fragmentation is a form of asexual reproduction where an organism breaks into fragments, each developing into a new organism.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pertussis toxoid. This is because pertussis toxoid is a component of the pertussis vaccine, which provides specific prophylaxis against pertussis by stimulating the immune system to produce antibodies against the bacteria causing the disease. Choice B, killed vaccine, is incorrect as it does not specify pertussis toxoid. Choice C, wide-spectrum antibiotics, is incorrect as antibiotics are used for treatment, not prophylaxis. Choice D, None of the above, is incorrect as pertussis toxoid is specifically used for prophylaxis of pertussis.