ATI RN
Microbiology An Evolving Science Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A healthy man is in a region with high risk of catching malaria. What drug should be administered for individual chemoprophylaxis of malaria?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chingamin (also known as Chloroquine). Chingamin is the drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis of malaria in regions with high risk. It is effective against Plasmodium falciparum, the most common malaria parasite. Chingamin is well-tolerated, affordable, and has a long track record of use. Sulfalen (Choice B) is not commonly used for malaria prophylaxis. Tetracycline (Choice C) is not recommended for malaria prophylaxis due to poor efficacy and resistance development. Metronidazole (Choice D) is not effective against malaria parasites.
Question 2 of 5
A patient being treated in the burns department has suppurative complication. The pus is of bluish- green color that is indicative of infection caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa. What factor is typical for this causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gram-negative stain. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a gram-negative bacterium, as indicated by the bluish-green pus color. This bacterium has an outer membrane that retains the crystal violet stain, making it appear pink/red after the counterstain with safranin in Gram staining. The other choices are incorrect because Pseudomonas aeruginosa does not typically form spores (B), has a rod-shaped morphology rather than a coccal form (C), and does not exhibit cell pairing (D).
Question 3 of 5
A 40-year-old man developed skin redness and an swelling in the neck area, where eventually a small abscess appeared. The section the focus is dense and yellow-green colored. In the purulent masses there are white granules. Histologically there are fungal druses, plasma and xanthome cells, and macrophages detected. Specify the most correct etiological name of this pathological process?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Actinomycosis. This is a chronic bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species. In this case, the description of dense yellow-green colored focus, white granules in purulent masses, and presence of fungal druses, plasma cells, xanthome cells, and macrophages all match the characteristics of actinomycosis. Actinomycosis typically presents with abscess formation containing sulfur granules, which are yellowish and granular. The other choices (B: Furuncle, C: Carbuncle, D: Syphilis) do not fit the clinical and histological features described in the question, making them incorrect options.
Question 4 of 5
Broadspectrum antibiotics can cause various complications, including intestinal candidiasis. What drug is used for treatment of this complication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nystatin. Nystatin is specifically used to treat intestinal candidiasis because it targets and eliminates the Candida species responsible for the infection. It is not absorbed systemically, acting only locally in the gastrointestinal tract. Griseofulvin (B) is mainly used to treat fungal skin infections, not intestinal candidiasis. Undecyne (C) is an antifungal agent used for skin infections, not for intestinal candidiasis. Amphotericin B (D) is a potent antifungal agent used for systemic fungal infections, not specifically for intestinal candidiasis.
Question 5 of 5
What microorganisms were accounted for in this case?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the case specifically mentions "enteropathogenic bacteria and viruses," indicating a focus on these specific microorganisms. Choice A is too broad and includes all bacteria, which is not specified in the case. Choice B mentions opportunistic pathogenic bacteria, which are not necessarily relevant to the case. Choice D specifies colibacilli, which may or may not be relevant to the case, but it is not as specific as choice C which clearly matches the information provided in the case.