A healthcare provider is reviewing the laboratory report of a client who is receiving heparin therapy for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following lab values indicates a therapeutic response to the therapy?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 70 seconds is within the therapeutic range for a client receiving heparin therapy. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the most sensitive test to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic aPTT range for a client receiving heparin is usually 1.5 to 2.5 times the control value. Choices A, C, and D are not indicators of a therapeutic response to heparin therapy. PT measures the extrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not specific to monitoring heparin therapy. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, but it does not indicate the therapeutic response to heparin therapy. INR is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin therapy.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of a patient presenting with signs of a stroke, the priority diagnostic test that the nurse should anticipate is a CT scan (Option A). The rationale behind this choice is that a CT scan is the most rapid and widely available imaging modality to assess for the presence of a stroke. It can quickly identify if the stroke is ischemic or hemorrhagic, which is crucial for guiding immediate treatment decisions such as administering thrombolytic therapy or managing blood pressure. On the other hand, the other options (MRI, X-ray, and Ultrasound) are not the preferred initial diagnostic tests for a suspected stroke. An MRI (Option B) provides more detailed imaging but takes longer to perform, which may delay time-sensitive interventions. X-rays (Option C) are used to visualize bones and some organs, not ideal for assessing stroke. Ultrasound (Option D) is more commonly used to assess blood flow in vessels but may not provide the detailed information needed for a stroke diagnosis. In an educational context, it is important for nurses to understand the rationale behind prioritizing certain diagnostic tests in specific clinical scenarios like stroke assessment. This knowledge helps nurses make quick and informed decisions to provide timely and appropriate care to patients, ultimately improving outcomes in acute situations such as stroke management.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bronchospasms. Bronchospasms can indicate worsening asthma and are considered a severe side effect that requires immediate attention. While sore throat, cough, and chest tightness are also possible side effects of beclomethasone, bronchospasms are of higher concern due to their association with significant respiratory distress and potential exacerbation of asthma symptoms.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I might not realize the full effect of the medication for several weeks.' Levothyroxine is a medication that may take several weeks for the full effect to be evident. Choice A is incorrect because levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach. Choice B is incorrect because immediate results are not expected with levothyroxine. Choice D is incorrect because stopping the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful, even if the client feels better.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Albuterol. Albuterol can cause chest pain as a side effect due to its beta-agonist effects, which can lead to chest discomfort. Digoxin (choice A) is not typically associated with causing chest pain. Lisinopril (choice C) and Metoprolol (choice D) are not known to commonly cause chest pain as a side effect.