A healthcare provider is reviewing the health record of a client who asks about using Propranolol to treat hypertension. The provider should recognize which of the following conditions is a contraindication for taking propranolol?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Propranolol is a nonselective beta-adrenergic blocker that blocks both beta1 and beta2 receptors. Blockade of beta2 receptors in the lungs causes bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated in clients with asthma. Using propranolol in asthma can exacerbate bronchoconstriction and potentially lead to respiratory distress or exacerbation of asthma symptoms.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Alcohol. Clients should avoid alcohol while taking metronidazole to prevent a disulfiram-like reaction, which can cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, headache, and flushing. It is important to educate clients on the potential interactions between metronidazole and alcohol to ensure the effectiveness of the medication and prevent adverse reactions.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. To ensure the insulin is available when food is digested, the client should take this medication 30 minutes before each meal. This timing aligns the medication with the expected postprandial rise in blood glucose levels, optimizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: When a client starts taking amitriptyline, an important adverse effect to monitor for is urinary retention. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause anticholinergic effects, including urinary retention. It is crucial to educate the client on recognizing and reporting this adverse effect to their healthcare provider.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication, so monitoring the client's platelet count is crucial to assess for potential bleeding complications. Changes in platelet count can indicate increased risk of bleeding, a known adverse effect of Clopidogrel.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A routine prescription indicates that the medication is to be administered on a regular schedule, typically daily, without a specified termination date or a specific number of doses. In this case, Lisinopril 10 mg PO once daily is to be given regularly until the healthcare provider decides to discontinue it. This type of prescription is common for medications that are part of the client's ongoing treatment regimen.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action the nurse should include in the plan of care is to keep the client NPO until the pharyngeal response returns. This is important to prevent aspiration until the client's normal pharyngeal sensation is restored, typically within about 1 hour after the procedure. Monitoring the insertion site for a hematoma, palpating the bladder, and maintaining the client on bed rest are not directly related to the administration of Tetracaine prior to a Bronchoscopy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Sore throat.' Doxorubicin is known to have immunosuppressive effects, which can predispose the client to infections. A sore throat can be an early sign of infection, and prompt reporting to the healthcare provider is crucial to initiate appropriate interventions and prevent complications.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain baseline vital signs. This is crucial for establishing a baseline assessment, especially for a patient undergoing opioid withdrawal and starting a new medication like Clonidine. Monitoring vital signs is essential for evaluating the patient's response to treatment and detecting any potential complications early on.