ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the healthcare provider monitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the sensation of a full bladder, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for this complication is crucial to prevent bladder distention and related issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate), hypertension (high blood pressure), and irritating cough are not typically associated with opioid agonist administration for pain management.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a history of migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which of the following findings in the client history should be reported to the provider by the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with a first-degree heart block due to its negative chronotropic properties that can further slow the heart rate. This can worsen conduction through the atrioventricular node, potentially leading to heart block progression. Therefore, the nurse should report the finding of a first-degree heart block to the provider before initiating Propranolol therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for Propranolol therapy. A prior myocardial infarction, taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, or using an SSRI for depression do not directly impact the initiation of Propranolol therapy in a client with a history of migraine headaches.
Question 3 of 5
A client is taking Propylthiouracil. For which of the following adverse effects of this medication should the nurse monitor?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Propylthiouracil is a medication used to treat hyperthyroidism. One of the adverse effects of Propylthiouracil is bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Since the medication works by decreasing thyroid hormone production, it can lead to hypothyroidism as a side effect, causing bradycardia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of bradycardia while taking Propylthiouracil. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because insomnia, heat intolerance, and weight loss are not typically associated adverse effects of Propylthiouracil.
Question 4 of 5
A client with Addison's disease is being admitted for a total hip arthroplasty. The client takes hydrocortisone. What is the nurse's priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The priority action for a client with Addison's disease undergoing surgery who takes hydrocortisone is to administer a supplemental dose of hydrocortisone. Acute adrenal insufficiency (adrenal crisis) is a significant risk during surgery due to the stress placed on the body. Supplemental doses help prevent acute adrenal insufficiency and ensure the client's safety during the surgical procedure. Instructing the client about coughing and deep breathing is important post-operatively but not the priority before surgery. Collecting additional information about the client's history of Addison's disease is relevant but not the priority action before surgery. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority action in this scenario.
Question 5 of 5
A client who is receiving combination chemotherapy is exhibiting a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients undergoing chemotherapy due to the heightened risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent severe complications. Dry oral mucous membranes, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are common side effects of chemotherapy but are not specific indicators of an oncologic emergency like a fever in this setting.