ATI RN
RN ATI Exit Exam Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct action the healthcare provider should include is changing the TPN tubing every 24 hours to decrease the risk of infection. Administering 0.9% sodium chloride with TPN is not typically recommended as it can cause chemical instability. Weighing the client every 72 hours is important but not directly related to TPN administration. Flushing the TPN line with heparin is not a standard practice and not recommended as it can increase the risk of complications.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure and is receiving furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a therapeutic effect of the medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clear lung sounds. Clear lung sounds indicate a therapeutic effect of furosemide, as the medication helps reduce fluid overload in heart failure. Choice A, increased shortness of breath, is incorrect as furosemide is used to relieve symptoms like shortness of breath. Choice B, weight gain of 2.3 kg (5 lb), is incorrect as furosemide is a diuretic that helps reduce fluid retention leading to weight loss. Choice D, bounding pulse, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact the pulse rate.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Vision changes are a common sign of digoxin toxicity, which can be serious and should be reported to the provider immediately. Changes in heart rate, blood pressure, or respiratory rate are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting vision changes to ensure prompt assessment and intervention.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has septic shock. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urinary output of 40 mL/hr is below the expected range and should be reported to the provider as it may indicate impaired kidney function, which is crucial to monitor in a client with septic shock. Choices A, C, and D are within acceptable ranges for a client with septic shock and do not indicate immediate concerns. A temperature of 38°C (100.4°F) is slightly elevated but can be expected in septic shock. A heart rate of 92/min is within the normal range for an adult. A capillary refill time of 2 seconds is also normal, indicating adequate peripheral perfusion.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who has a tracheostomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when providing tracheostomy care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to use a sterile brush to clean the inner cannula. This action is crucial to prevent infection during tracheostomy care. Choice A is incorrect as clean technique is not adequate for tracheostomy care, sterile technique is required. Choice B is incorrect as tracheostomy ties should be replaced when soiled, not routinely every 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect as tracheostomy dressings should be changed more frequently to maintain cleanliness and prevent infection.