ATI RN
RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive Assessment Form A Questions
Question 1 of 9
A healthcare provider is planning care for a client who has fluid overload. Which of the following actions should the provider plan to take first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Evaluating electrolytes is crucial when addressing fluid overload as it helps determine the severity of the imbalance and guides treatment. Assessing for edema (Choice A) is important but not the priority over evaluating electrolytes. Restricting fluid intake (Choice C) and administering diuretics (Choice D) are interventions that may be necessary but should be based on the electrolyte evaluation to ensure safe and effective care.
Question 2 of 9
A patient has a new prescription for allopurinol to treat gout. What should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct answer: Increasing fluid intake is essential when taking allopurinol to prevent kidney stones and aid in uric acid excretion. This helps reduce the risk of developing complications associated with gout. Decreasing protein intake (Choice A) is not directly related to allopurinol therapy. Limiting salt intake (Choice B) and alcohol consumption (Choice D) are important for overall health but are not specific recommendations when taking allopurinol for gout.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client prescribed warfarin. What should be included in the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a client is prescribed warfarin, they should be educated to report any unusual bleeding or bruising promptly. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Avoiding foods rich in vitamin K is not necessary when taking warfarin, as long as intake remains consistent. Warfarin does not need to be taken with meals, and aspirin should not be taken for pain relief due to its blood-thinning effects, which can increase the risk of bleeding when combined with warfarin.
Question 4 of 9
What is an expected finding during the assessment of a client transitioning into a new role?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During a client's transition into a new role, the presence of suicidal or homicidal ideation should be assessed due to the increased risk associated with significant life changes. This finding could indicate a need for immediate intervention. While assessing the client's ability to express feelings of guilt is important, it may not be the most critical aspect during this specific assessment. Changes in coping skills over time are relevant but might not be the primary focus during a role transition assessment. The client's involvement in community activities, although beneficial for social support, is not directly related to the immediate concerns of assessing a client transitioning into a new role.
Question 5 of 9
A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who received their medications 1 hour ago. The client reports chest pain. This can be an adverse effect of what medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Albuterol. Albuterol can cause chest pain as a side effect due to its beta-agonist effects, which can lead to chest discomfort. Digoxin (choice A) is not typically associated with causing chest pain. Lisinopril (choice C) and Metoprolol (choice D) are not known to commonly cause chest pain as a side effect.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is teaching a female client who is experiencing alcohol withdrawal about chlordiazepoxide. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 7 of 9
A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse include as adverse effects of this medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Correct. Bradycardia is a known adverse effect of atenolol, a beta-blocker medication commonly used to treat hypertension. Atenolol can slow down the heart rate, leading to bradycardia. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of bradycardia, such as dizziness, fatigue, or fainting. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cough, tremor, and constipation are not typically associated with atenolol use.
Question 8 of 9
A healthcare professional is giving a change-of-shift report about a client admitted earlier that day with pneumonia. Which of the following pieces of information is the priority for the healthcare professional to provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Breath sounds.' When providing a change-of-shift report for a client with pneumonia, the priority information to communicate is the assessment of breath sounds. Monitoring breath sounds is crucial in assessing respiratory status and the effectiveness of treatments in pneumonia. Option A, recent chest x-ray results, may be important but does not provide real-time information on the client's current status. Option B, medication history, is relevant but not as immediate as assessing breath sounds. Option D, lab results, can provide valuable information but may not be as urgent as monitoring the client's respiratory status through breath sounds.
Question 9 of 9
What are the key considerations when administering medication via a nasogastric (NG) tube?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Checking tube placement before administration. This is a crucial step to ensure that the medication reaches the stomach safely and does not end up in the lungs, which can lead to serious complications. Choice B is incorrect as not all medications can be administered in liquid form. Choice C is incorrect because crushing tablets can alter their effectiveness or cause harm. Choice D is incorrect as flushing the NG tube with water is not a standard practice before administering medication, unless specified by healthcare provider instructions.