ATI RN
Free Medical Surgical Certification Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
A healthcare provider collaborates with a respiratory therapist to complete pulmonary function tests (PFTs) for a client. Which statements should the healthcare provider include in communications with the respiratory therapist prior to the tests? (Select ONE that does not apply)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C Rationale: - Option C, stating that physical therapy has approved the client for treadmill exercise, is unrelated to pulmonary function tests (PFTs). PFTs measure lung function, not physical therapy or exercise tolerance. - Options A, B, and D are all essential for accurate PFT results. A) Ensuring the client did not use bronchodilators can affect test outcomes. B) The location for the examination is not relevant as long as the equipment is available. D) Instructing the client not to smoke before the test is crucial as smoking can affect lung function.
Question 2 of 5
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being assessed by a nurse. Which finding should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased anterior-posterior (AP) chest diameter. In COPD, the lungs lose their elasticity, trapping air and causing hyperinflation. This leads to increased AP chest diameter due to barrel chest appearance. Option B is incorrect because COPD often results in an increased respiratory rate due to difficulty breathing. Option C is incorrect as weight gain is not a typical finding in COPD, which is often associated with weight loss. Option D is incorrect as a productive cough with yellow sputum is more commonly seen in respiratory infections rather than COPD exacerbations.
Question 3 of 5
A client with asthma is being taught about peak flow meter use. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because using the peak flow meter every morning provides a baseline measurement of lung function when the client is typically stable. This allows for early detection of changes and adjustment of treatment. Choice B is incorrect as waiting until feeling short of breath may be too late. Choice C is incorrect because using the peak flow meter before the inhaler may not provide an accurate measurement. Choice D is incorrect as using the peak flow meter after the inhaler may not reflect the true lung function.
Question 4 of 5
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receives oxygen therapy. Which finding requires immediate intervention by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute. In a client with COPD, a respiratory rate of 10 breaths per minute indicates severe respiratory depression and impending respiratory failure. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent hypoxia and respiratory arrest. Oxygen saturation of 91% (choice A) is low but not as critical as a low respiratory rate. Shortness of breath (choice C) is expected in COPD but does not indicate immediate danger. Use of accessory muscles (choice D) is a sign of respiratory distress, but a low respiratory rate is more concerning for imminent respiratory failure.
Question 5 of 5
A healthcare provider assesses a client with pneumonia. Which clinical manifestation should the provider expect to find?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dullness on percussion. Pneumonia is characterized by consolidation of lung tissue, causing dullness on percussion due to increased density. Fremitus (A) and tactile fremitus (D) are decreased in conditions like pleural effusion or pneumothorax, not pneumonia. Hyperresonance (B) is associated with conditions like emphysema, not pneumonia. In pneumonia, the affected area is consolidated, leading to dullness on percussion.