ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An elevated WBC count should be reported to the provider as it may indicate an infection. Elevated white blood cell counts can be a sign of an underlying infection or inflammation. Monitoring and reporting abnormal laboratory values are essential for timely interventions. The other options, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and a sore throat, while important for overall assessment, are not directly related to the potential medical urgency indicated by an elevated WBC count.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is planning care for a group of clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse plan to assess first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A client with a fractured femur and reports feeling short of breath is at risk for a fat embolism, which is a medical emergency. The nurse should assess this client first to rule out this serious complication. Choice B may indicate paralytic ileus, which is important but not immediately life-threatening compared to a fat embolism. Choice C has a fever, which indicates infection but is not as urgent as a potential fat embolism. Choice D, a client receiving radiation therapy, is not experiencing an acute, life-threatening complication that requires immediate assessment compared to a fat embolism.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is 24 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A temperature of 38.6°C (101.5°F) is above the normal range and indicates a fever, which is a concerning finding postoperatively. Fever can be a sign of infection, so the nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and intervention. Choices A, B, and D are within expected parameters for a client who is 24 hours postoperative following abdominal surgery and do not require immediate reporting. A heart rate of 90/min, serosanguineous drainage in the surgical drain, and a urinary output of 60 mL/hr are all common postoperative findings that do not raise immediate concerns.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse should turn the client onto their side. This action helps maintain an open airway by allowing saliva or any vomitus to drain out of the mouth, reducing the risk of aspiration. Inserting a tongue depressor (choice A) is incorrect as it can cause injury to the client's mouth and is not recommended during a seizure. Restraining the client's arms and legs (choice B) can lead to physical harm and should be avoided. Placing the client in a prone position (choice D) is dangerous as it can obstruct the airway and hinder breathing, which is not suitable for a client experiencing a seizure.
Question 5 of 5
A client is 4 hours postpartum. Which of the following interventions should be implemented to prevent postpartum hemorrhage?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Administering methylergonovine intramuscularly helps contract the uterus, reducing the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Monitoring for signs of infection (Choice A) is important but not directly related to preventing postpartum hemorrhage. Uterine massage (Choice B) is beneficial to prevent uterine atony, but methylergonovine is a more specific intervention to prevent hemorrhage. Applying ice packs to the perineum (Choice C) is helpful for perineal pain and swelling, not for preventing postpartum hemorrhage.