Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Elevated random serum glucose levels of 190 mg/dL indicate hyperglycemia and poor blood sugar control, requiring a revised plan of care. HbA1c levels above 7% also indicate long-term poor control of blood sugar. Serum sodium of 144 mEq/L and creatinine of 1.2 mg/dL are within normal ranges and do not directly indicate a need for a plan of care revision.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.2 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L is below the normal range and should be monitored in clients receiving furosemide due to the risk of hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium depletion, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices A, B, and D are not directly impacted by furosemide therapy in the same way as potassium levels, making them less relevant for monitoring in this scenario.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should make is that dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor. Dehydration reduces amniotic fluid and uterine blood flow, potentially leading to preterm contractions. Choice A is incorrect because dehydration is not treated with calcium supplements but rather with adequate fluid intake. Choice C is incorrect as dehydration does not directly increase gastroesophageal reflux. Choice D is incorrect as dehydration is not caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit levels but rather by insufficient fluid intake or excessive fluid loss.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients taking spironolactone should have their potassium levels checked regularly. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium and can lead to hyperkalemia if levels become too high. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because avoiding foods high in potassium, sodium, or monitoring blood pressure are not specific to the teaching related to spironolactone.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). aPTT is specifically used to monitor and regulate heparin therapy as it assesses the intrinsic pathway of coagulation, which heparin affects. Options A and B, Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR), are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Option D, Fibrinogen levels, is not the primary test used to monitor heparin therapy.