A healthcare professional is reviewing a new prescription for Ondansetron 4 mg PO PRN for nausea and vomiting for a client who has Hyperemesis Gravidarum. The healthcare professional should clarify which of the following parts of the prescription with the provider?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the healthcare professional should clarify the frequency part of the prescription with the provider. The correct answer is D) Frequency. Rationale: - Frequency refers to how often the medication should be taken. In this case, "PRN" (pro re nata) indicates that Ondansetron should be taken as needed for nausea and vomiting. However, it is crucial to establish clear parameters for when and how often the medication can be used to ensure proper management of Hyperemesis Gravidarum. - A) Name: The name refers to the medication prescribed, which in this case is Ondansetron. Since the medication name is clear, there is no need to clarify this with the provider. - B) Dosage: The dosage specified is 4 mg, which is a standard dose for Ondansetron. Unless there are specific concerns about the dosage in the context of pregnancy, there is no immediate need to clarify this with the provider. - C) Route: The route specified is PO (by mouth), which is appropriate for oral medications. Given that the client is prescribed Ondansetron for oral use, there is no need to question the route with the provider. Educational Context: Understanding prescription components is essential for healthcare professionals to ensure safe and effective medication administration. In this case, clarifying the frequency of a PRN medication helps prevent under or overuse, especially in the context of managing conditions like Hyperemesis Gravidarum during pregnancy. By focusing on the frequency aspect, healthcare providers can optimize patient care and medication outcomes.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: To minimize the risk of catheter embolism, it is crucial to avoid reinserting the needle into an IV catheter. This practice can potentially sever the end of the catheter, leading to catheter embolism. Proper insertion techniques, securement, and avoiding unnecessary manipulations of the catheter can help prevent this serious complication.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The interaction between oxycodone and ibuprofen results in an increase in the expected therapeutic effect of both medications. Oxycodone is a narcotic analgesic, while ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). They work through different mechanisms but complement each other in pain management. When taken together, they can enhance the pain-relieving effects of each other, providing better pain relief for the client.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) This medication has a low risk for dependency. It is crucial for the nurse to educate the client about the risks associated with Buspirone, an anxiolytic medication, to ensure the client's safety and adherence to the treatment plan. Buspirone is preferred over benzodiazepines for long-term management of anxiety due to its lower potential for abuse and dependency. By informing the client that Buspirone has a low risk for dependency, the nurse empowers the client to take the medication as prescribed without the fear of developing a substance use disorder. Regarding the incorrect options: A) Taking Buspirone with or without food does not significantly affect its effectiveness, so taking it on an empty stomach is not necessary. B) Buspirone may take up to several weeks to reach optimal therapeutic effects, not within 24 hours. C) Buspirone is typically taken regularly, not as needed, to maintain steady blood levels and provide consistent relief from anxiety symptoms. Educationally, understanding the pharmacological properties of anxiolytic medications like Buspirone equips nurses to provide accurate information to clients, promote medication adherence, and ensure client safety and well-being. It also highlights the importance of individualizing patient education based on the specific characteristics of each medication to optimize treatment outcomes.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is "A) Perform immediate gastric lavage." This action is appropriate because a plasma Lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L is considered toxic, as the therapeutic range is typically 0.6-1.2 mEq/L. Gastric lavage is a common method used to reduce further absorption of the drug in cases of acute lithium toxicity. It involves flushing the stomach with a solution to remove any remaining lithium. Option B) Prepare the client for hemodialysis is incorrect because while hemodialysis may be necessary in severe cases of lithium toxicity, it is not the initial intervention. Gastric lavage is typically the first step in managing acute lithium toxicity. Option C) Administer an additional oral dose of lithium is incorrect as it would worsen the toxicity and increase the plasma level further, leading to more severe symptoms. Option D) Request a stat repeat of the laboratory test is incorrect because action needs to be taken promptly to address the toxic levels of lithium in the client's system. Waiting for a repeat test would delay necessary intervention. In an educational context, this question highlights the critical importance of recognizing and managing drug toxicities promptly and effectively. Understanding the appropriate interventions for specific toxicities, like lithium toxicity, is essential for healthcare professionals to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.